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All 115 313A Practice Questions & Answers

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This is the complete written list of our free 313A Refrigeration & AC Mechanic practice questions — all 115 of them, with the correct answer marked, an explanation of why it is correct, and a one-line key concept for revision.

Questions are grouped by the occupational standard topic areas used on the exam: Refrigeration Cycle, Refrigerants, Components, Controls & Electrical, Troubleshooting.

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Refrigeration Cycle 23 questions
Q1easy
In the basic vapour compression refrigeration cycle, what are the four main components in order?
  • A) Condenser → Compressor → Evaporator → Expansion valve
  • B) Compressor → Condenser → Expansion valve → Evaporator
  • C) Compressor → Evaporator → Condenser → Expansion valve
  • D) Evaporator → Condenser → Compressor → Expansion valve
Correct answer: B
Cycle order: Compressor → Condenser → Expansion valve → Evaporator. The compressor pumps high-pressure hot gas to the condenser (rejects heat), then through the expansion valve (pressure drop), then to the evaporator (absorbs heat from space), then back to the compressor.
Key concept: Compressor → Condenser → Expansion valve → Evaporator. The two pressure-changing parts and the two heat-exchanging parts alternate around the loop: the compressor raises pressure, the condenser rejects heat at high pressure, the expansion valve drops pressure, the evaporator absorbs heat at low pressure. Heat always leaves the refrigerant at high pressure and enters it at low pressure.
Q2easy
Warm humid air passes over an evaporator coil and water collects in the drain pan. Why does the coil take moisture out of the air?
  • A) The refrigerant absorbs the water vapour and carries it outdoors
  • B) The low pressure inside the coil draws water vapour from the airstream
  • C) The coil surface is below the dew point, so moisture condenses
  • D) The drain pan draws moisture out of the air that passes above it
Correct answer: C
A cooling coil dehumidifies because its surface sits below the dew point of the air passing over it. Air holds water vapour; cool any surface below the temperature at which that vapour would begin to condense — the dew point — and water comes out of the air onto the surface, exactly as it does on a cold glass. On a coil it runs down the fins into the drain pan and leaves the building as condensate. Removing that moisture is latent cooling; lowering the air temperature is sensible cooling, and a coil does both at once, which is why a coil handling humid air spends part of its capacity on water rather than on temperature.

The refrigerant never touches the air — it is sealed inside the tube, so it can neither absorb the moisture nor be affected by it, and the low pressure inside that sealed circuit has no reach into the airstream. The drain pan only catches what has already condensed. Two practical consequences follow from the real mechanism: a coil running warmer than the dew point cools without dehumidifying, and a coil driven below freezing turns the condensate to ice and blocks its own airflow.
Key concept: A coil dehumidifies when its surface temperature is below the dew point of the entering air: vapour condenses on the fins, runs to the drain pan, and leaves as condensate. Removing moisture is latent cooling; dropping the air temperature is sensible cooling, and a coil does both at once. A coil above the dew point cools without dehumidifying. A coil below freezing turns the condensate to ice, blocks its own airflow, and stops doing either. The condensate must be able to drain away freely, or it backs up and overflows into the space.
Q3easy
What is the purpose of the condenser in a refrigeration system?
  • A) To evaporate the refrigerant using heat from the room
  • B) To regulate refrigerant flow to the evaporator
  • C) To compress refrigerant vapour for circulation
  • D) To reject heat and condense the refrigerant to a liquid
Correct answer: D
Condenser: rejects heat, converts vapour to liquid. High-temperature, high-pressure vapour from the compressor enters the condenser. Heat is rejected to the outside environment — ambient air (air-cooled) or water (water-cooled). As heat leaves, the vapour condenses into a high-pressure liquid ready for the metering device.
Key concept: Condenser: hot high-pressure vapour → high-pressure liquid + heat rejected to ambient. Hot ambient = condenser struggles = high head pressure. Dirty condenser coil = same effect.
Q4medium
A technician measures 10°F of superheat at the evaporator outlet and 28°F of superheat at the compressor suction service valve on the same running system. What does the difference between the two readings tell the technician?
  • A) The compressor is adding its heat of compression to the returning gas
  • B) The evaporator is starved and the coil is boiling its charge off early
  • C) The bulb has lost its charge and the valve is no longer controlling
  • D) Heat is being picked up by the suction line before the compressor
Correct answer: D
Two superheat measurements answer two different questions, and the gap between them is heat the suction line picked up on the way. Evaporator superheat is taken at the coil outlet against the saturation temperature at that point, and it says how the metering device is feeding the coil. Total or compressor superheat is taken at the compressor suction, and it says how hot the gas reaching the compressor actually is. Here the coil reading of 10°F sits in the normal band for a thermostatic expansion valve, so the valve is feeding correctly and the coil is not starved; the extra 18°F was added after the refrigerant left the coil. Look for missing, wet or displaced suction line insulation, or a line run through a hot ceiling space or mechanical room.

It matters because return gas cools the compressor motor and sets the temperature the compression stroke starts from — hot return gas means a hotter discharge line, and heat is what breaks oil down. Note the contrast: if BOTH readings were high, the coil itself would be underfed and the fault would be charge or a restriction, not the line. The compressor cannot be the cause of a suction-side reading, because its heat of compression is added after the suction port, on the discharge side. A bulb that had lost its charge would close the valve and drive the coil-outlet superheat up as well, which is not what is measured.
Key concept: Two superheat measurements, two questions. Evaporator superheat (coil outlet, against saturation temperature there) says how the metering device is feeding the coil — target 8-12°F on a TXV system. Total or compressor superheat (at the compressor suction) says how hot the gas arriving at the compressor is. The difference between them is suction line heat gain. Normal coil superheat with a much higher compressor superheat means missing or wet insulation, or a line run through a hot space. Both readings high together means the coil is starved. High return gas temperature raises discharge temperature and cooks the oil, so it is not a harmless reading.
Q5medium
How is liquid subcooling determined on a running system?
  • A) Saturation temperature at the high-side pressure minus liquid line temperature
  • B) Saturation temperature at the suction pressure minus liquid line temperature
  • C) Saturation temperature at the high-side pressure minus suction line temperature
  • D) Liquid line temperature minus the temperature of air entering the condenser
Correct answer: A
Subcooling is the saturation temperature for the pressure on the high side minus the actual temperature of the liquid. Take the pressure at the liquid line or the discharge service valve, read the saturation temperature for that refrigerant off the pressure-temperature chart, then measure the liquid line temperature with a clamp probe: at the condenser outlet when the condenser and the charge are what you are judging, or at the metering device inlet when what you want to know is the condition of the liquid actually arriving at the valve. The difference says how far below its condensing temperature the liquid has been cooled, which is what tells you whether solid liquid rather than a mixture of liquid and vapour is reaching the metering device. Probe contact and insulation decide whether the number is worth anything, because a small probe error is a large share of the whole measurement. On a blend with temperature glide, subcooling is worked out from the bubble point column of the chart.

Where the reading is taken decides what a low or a high number means, so name the point before naming the fault. At the condenser outlet, low subcooling means too little liquid is backed up in the condenser: an undercharge or a leak. High subcooling at the condenser outlet means the liquid is there but something is holding it back: an overcharge, or a restriction downstream of the condenser such as a plugged filter drier, a kinked liquid line or a blocked metering device screen. Past that restriction the picture reverses, because the liquid has lost pressure and part of it has flashed, so a reading taken at the sight glass or the metering device inlet shows little or no subcooling; that is the same event a sight glass reports as bubbles. Ordinary pressure drop along a long liquid line trims the subcooling arriving at the valve in the same way without any fault upstream. Where non-condensables are present the calculated subcooling reads high because the gauge pressure is inflated, so it is apparent rather than real.

The other combinations pair readings that have nothing to do with one another. Suction pressure belongs to the low side and says nothing about the temperature the refrigerant is condensing at, and the suction line lies downstream of the evaporator, so neither of them belongs in this calculation. Comparing the liquid line temperature against the air entering the condenser is not subcooling, and it is not condenser split either: subcooling measures the liquid against the condensing saturation temperature, while condenser split measures that same condensing saturation temperature against the entering-air dry bulb. Neither measurement is a liquid-to-air comparison.
Key concept: Subcooling is measured, not guessed: a pressure reading and a temperature reading taken on the liquid line. Saturation temperature for the high-side pressure minus the actual liquid line temperature. Typical values run about 10 to 15 degrees F, but the number to work to is the subcooling on the equipment nameplate. Insulate the probe. On a blend with glide, use the bubble point. Name the measurement point before naming the fault. At the CONDENSER OUTLET: low subcooling means too little liquid in the condenser, an undercharge or a leak; high subcooling means liquid is being held back, by an overcharge or by a restriction downstream of the condenser (plugged drier, kinked liquid line, blocked metering device screen). DOWNSTREAM of a restriction, at the sight glass or the metering device inlet, the liquid has lost pressure and flashed, so subcooling there reads low or zero and the sight glass bubbles. Pressure drop along a long liquid line lowers the subcooling arriving at the valve in the same way. Where non-condensables are present the calculated subcooling reads high because the gauge pressure is inflated: apparent, not real.
Q6hard
A refrigeration system fitted with a thermostatic expansion valve is running with normal suction pressure, discharge pressure well above normal for the outdoor temperature, and compressor amp draw above normal. The MOST likely cause is:
  • A) The expansion valve stuck closed
  • B) Worn or leaking compressor valves
  • C) An undercharge of refrigerant
  • D) Poor condenser heat rejection
Correct answer: D
Head pressure that has climbed while suction pressure stayed where it belongs says the condenser is not getting rid of its heat. A condenser can only reject heat into what it is given, so a fouled or blocked coil, a fan that has failed or is turning the wrong way, discharge air recirculating around the unit, a high ambient, or non-condensable gas occupying condenser volume all force the refrigerant to condense at a higher temperature than it should, and the pressure rises with that temperature. The compressor is then pumping against a wider difference, doing more work, which is exactly what the raised amp reading is reporting.

Suction pressure stays near normal on this machine because the thermostatic expansion valve throttles to hold superheat and goes on feeding the coil at the rate the load calls for. The same fault reads differently on a fixed-orifice machine: there the higher liquid pressure pushes more refrigerant through the orifice, so suction pressure rises along with the head and the pattern becomes high on both sides.

The other three faults move the pressures in other directions. An expansion valve stuck closed starves the coil, so suction pressure falls well below normal and discharge falls with it. Worn or leaking compressor valves let gas bleed back instead of being pumped, so the machine still turns but pumps poorly: suction pressure runs higher than it should because the compressor cannot pull it down, discharge pressure runs lower than normal because it cannot build head, the two pressures come closer together, and amp draw falls rather than rises. An undercharge leaves too little refrigerant in the system, so suction pressure, discharge pressure and subcooling all read low together.
Key concept: Read the two pressures as a pattern, then confirm the reading with amp draw. Normal suction with high discharge on a thermostatic expansion valve system: the condenser is not rejecting its heat - dirty coil, failed or reversed fan, recirculating discharge air, high ambient, or non-condensables - and the harder-working compressor draws more current than normal. High suction with high discharge: an overcharge, or that same heat-rejection problem on a fixed-orifice machine, where the higher liquid pressure feeds more refrigerant through the orifice. Suction high, discharge low, the two converging with amp draw down: the compressor is not pumping, from worn or leaking valves. Low suction and low discharge together: an undercharge, a liquid-line restriction, or too little load on the evaporator.
Q7hard
Non-condensable gases (air) trapped in a refrigeration system cause:
  • A) Low suction pressure and frost on the evaporator
  • B) High condensing pressure and temperature
  • C) The expansion valve to hunt continuously
  • D) Dilution of the compressor oil charge
Correct answer: B
Non-condensables raise head pressure and push the condensing temperature up with it. Air and other non-condensable gases collect in the top of the condenser and cannot be condensed, so they occupy surface that should be rejecting heat. With less effective surface the refrigerant has to condense at a higher temperature than normal - so both the pressure and the actual condensing temperature rise. The head pressure rises further than the temperature alone would explain, because by Dalton's law the gauge is reading the refrigerant's own saturation pressure plus the partial pressure of the trapped air sitting on top of it. That gap is the diagnostic clue: measure the actual condenser temperature and it will read BELOW the saturation temperature the P-T chart gives for the pressure showing on the gauge. To confirm, shut the system down and let the condenser settle to ambient temperature, then compare the standing head pressure against the chart value for that ambient. A standing pressure higher than the chart predicts for the measured temperature means non-condensables are present, and the charge must be recovered and the system evacuated properly.
Key concept: Non-condensables: air or nitrogen trapped in the system, collecting in the top of the condenser. Two reference points, and they are not in conflict - against NORMAL OPERATION both head pressure and condensing temperature run high; against the P-T CHART the measured condenser temperature reads lower than the saturation temperature that gauge pressure would indicate, because the gauge is reading refrigerant pressure plus air partial pressure. Confirm with a shut-down standing-pressure test against ambient. Cure: recover the charge and evacuate.
Q8medium
A medium-temperature refrigeration system is running on a call for cooling, with the box still well above setpoint, and the suction gauge reads below atmospheric pressure (a vacuum). This indicates:
  • A) A severe undercharge or a blocked metering device
  • B) The system has been overcharged with refrigerant
  • C) Discharge valves leaking inside the compressor
  • D) Pump-down mode with the solenoid valve closed
Correct answer: A
A vacuum on the low side of a running system means almost nothing is reaching the evaporator. With the box calling for cooling, the compressor is pulling vapour out of the coil faster than the metering device can replace it, so the pressure falls until it drops below atmospheric. Two faults do that: a severe undercharge, where there is barely any refrigerant left to feed the coil, and a blockage that stops the flow - a metering device stuck closed, a plugged strainer or filter-drier, or a kinked liquid line. Either way the compressor loses the vapour flow that returns its oil and, on a suction-cooled motor, carries the winding heat away, so shut the system down and diagnose before it is damaged. Running below atmospheric pressure also draws air and moisture into the low side through any leak, fitting or seal, which puts non-condensables and acid into the system. The other readings do not fit. An overcharge raises suction pressure rather than lowering it. Leaking compressor discharge valves let high-side gas bleed back into the cylinder, which pushes suction pressure UP while head pressure falls toward it. And a pump-down draws the low side down only after the call for cooling has ended and the liquid-line solenoid has closed, not while the box is still calling.
Key concept: Suction pressure in a vacuum on a running system is a critical reading, never an efficient one. It means the coil is not being fed: severe undercharge, or a restriction - metering device closed, plugged strainer or filter-drier, kinked liquid line. Shut down and diagnose; running in a vacuum starves the compressor of oil return and motor cooling and pulls air and moisture in through any low-side leak. Faults that RAISE suction pressure - overcharge, leaking compressor valves, heavy load - are the opposite signature. Low-temperature systems engineered to run below atmospheric pressure are a separate case and are not what this reading means on a medium-temperature machine.
Q9easy
In the refrigeration cycle, what state (phase) is the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser under normal operating conditions?
  • A) Supercritical fluid, past the critical point and no longer condensable
  • B) Subcooled liquid, cooled below its condensing saturation temperature
  • C) Superheated vapour, still well above its own saturation temperature
  • D) A saturated mixture of liquid and vapour at the condensing temperature
Correct answer: B
Condenser outlet: subcooled liquid under normal operation. The condenser removes heat from the refrigerant in three stages: 1) desuperheating (vapour cools to saturation), 2) condensing (vapour → liquid at constant pressure and temperature), 3) subcooling (liquid cools further, below saturation). Subcooling is what stops vapour bubbles forming in the liquid line before the metering device. Typical subcooling is 10–15°F (about 6–8°C), but the value to work to is the one on the equipment nameplate, since some equipment specifies outside that band.
Key concept: Condenser outlet: subcooled liquid. Measure: condensing saturation temperature (from the high-side pressure) minus actual liquid line temperature = subcooling. Typical 10–15°F, but charge to the nameplate subcooling value. Insufficient subcooling: flashing in the liquid line → noisy TXV, poor performance. Causes of low subcooling: undercharge, restriction upstream, or liquid-line pressure drop.
Q10medium
A refrigeration system has higher-than-normal suction pressure AND higher-than-normal discharge pressure simultaneously. What does this pattern most likely indicate?
  • A) Loss of compressor efficiency — worn valves make both pressures converge toward the middle
  • B) Refrigerant undercharge — low charge causes both pressures to be low
  • C) Refrigerant overcharge or poor condenser heat rejection (dirty coil, failed fan, or high ambient)
  • D) A restricted liquid line — restriction increases discharge pressure and starves the evaporator
Correct answer: C
High suction + high discharge simultaneously = refrigerant overcharge or a condenser that cannot reject heat. An overcharge backs liquid up in the condenser and raises both pressures; a dirty or blocked condenser, a failed condenser fan, or high ambient temperature prevents heat rejection with the same result. Check condenser cleanliness, fan operation, and refrigerant charge. Contrast this with worn compressor valves, where suction rises while discharge FALLS and the two pressures converge toward the middle — that is compressor inefficiency, not this pattern.
Key concept: High suction + high discharge: overcharge OR poor condenser heat rejection (dirty coil, fan failure, high ambient). Contrast — converging pressures (suction up, discharge down) = compressor valve/pump wear. Low suction + low discharge = undercharge or restriction.
Q11hard
After repairing a leak on a commercial condensing unit, a technician pressure tests with dry nitrogen at the test pressure marked on the nameplate, holds the test overnight without loss, releases the nitrogen to atmosphere, closes the system and weighs in the nameplate charge. On start-up the unit cools poorly and repeatedly trips its high-pressure control. What is the most likely cause?
  • A) Nitrogen left in at atmospheric pressure because the system was not evacuated
  • B) A filter drier that was not replaced and has plugged with debris from the repair
  • C) Moisture that entered during the repair and is freezing at the metering device
  • D) Compressor valves damaged by holding the nitrogen at test pressure overnight
Correct answer: A
Letting the nitrogen out is not the same as taking it out. When the gauges read zero the system is still full of nitrogen at atmospheric pressure, and only a vacuum pump removes it. The sequence after a nitrogen test is release, evacuate, then charge; this technician went from release straight to charging, so the refrigerant was weighed in on top of a system full of nitrogen. Nitrogen does not condense at any pressure or temperature the condenser can reach, so it is carried round to the condenser and stays there, occupying surface that should be rejecting heat and adding its own partial pressure to the refrigerant's. Head pressure climbs beyond anything the ambient and the load can justify, the high-pressure control trips, the unit restarts when the pressure falls back and trips again, and the little running it does is at reduced capacity. There is no bleeding it off: recover the charge, evacuate to a deep vacuum proven with a micron gauge on a standing test, and weigh the charge back in.

The other faults are real but each writes a different signature. A plugged filter drier is a liquid line restriction: it starves the evaporator, so suction pressure runs low with high superheat and the drier outlet runs colder than its inlet; head pressure does not climb and the high-pressure control has no reason to trip. Moisture freezing at the metering device also starves the coil, intermittently, with the same low-side picture and a moisture indicator turning colour; again nothing pushes the high side up. Compressor valve damage is the opposite of what was found: a compressor with damaged valves still turns and moves some gas but pumps poorly, so suction pressure runs higher than it should, discharge pressure lower, the two converge and amp draw falls, which is a machine that cannot reach its high-pressure cut-out rather than one tripping it repeatedly.
Key concept: After a nitrogen pressure test the order is release, EVACUATE, charge. Releasing to zero on the gauge leaves the system full of nitrogen at atmospheric pressure; only evacuation removes it. Nitrogen and air are non-condensables: they collect in the condenser, take up condensing surface and add their own partial pressure, so head pressure runs above what the ambient explains, the high-pressure control trips and capacity falls. Cure is recover, evacuate to a deep vacuum proven on a standing micron test, recharge; nothing can be bled off. Separate it from the low-side faults by where the trouble sits: a restricted drier or moisture freezing at the metering device starve the coil (low suction, high superheat, cold spot at the restriction) and do not raise head pressure. Damaged compressor valves are the opposite signature: suction higher than it should be, discharge lower, the two converging, amp draw down.
Q12medium
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigeration system and how does it differ from energy efficiency ratio (EER)?
  • A) COP and EER are the same measurement — different names used in different regions
  • B) COP is used only for commercial systems; EER is used only for residential systems
  • C) COP is a watts-per-watt ratio; EER is BTU/h per watt — EER ≈ COP × 3.412
  • D) COP measures heating efficiency; EER measures cooling efficiency
Correct answer: C
COP: dimensionless efficiency ratio. EER: BTU/h per watt. Both measure the same concept — useful cooling output per unit of work input, in different unit combinations. COP = Qc / W (cooling capacity in watts divided by power input in watts). COP = 3 means 3 units of heat removed per 1 unit of electrical energy consumed. EER = cooling capacity in BTU/h divided by power input in watts = COP × 3.412 (because 1 watt = 3.412 BTU/h). A modern high-efficiency air conditioner might have a COP of 3.5–5.0 and an EER of 12–17. SEER (Seasonal EER) averages over a cooling season.
Key concept: COP = Q_cold / W_in (dimensionless). Higher = more efficient. EER = BTU/h ÷ Watts. SEER = seasonal average. Relationships: EER = COP × 3.412. COP of typical AC: 3–5. Heat pump (heating mode) COP: 2–4. COP always >1 for vapour compression (unlike electric resistance heat = COP 1.0).
Q13easy
Why can a small mass of refrigerant absorb so much heat in the evaporator?
  • A) Because the pressure drop at the metering device chills it below the air
  • B) Because the compressor pushes it through the coil faster than a liquid
  • C) Because a change of state absorbs far more heat than a temperature rise
  • D) Because its temperature rises steadily from the coil inlet to the outlet
Correct answer: C
Boiling absorbs latent heat, and that is far more heat per kilogram than simply warming the refrigerant. Heat that turns a liquid into a vapour is latent heat, and for a refrigerant it is many times the sensible heat picked up by warming that same mass a few degrees. The evaporator is therefore built to boil the refrigerant off, and only the last stretch of the coil adds sensible heat as superheat. That is why a modest mass flow can carry a large cooling capacity, and why flooding or starving the coil, which changes how much of the coil is actually boiling, costs capacity so quickly. It is also why the refrigerant leaving the coil must be all vapour: any liquid still in it represents latent heat the coil failed to use, and it is heading for the compressor.
Key concept: Latent heat is absorbed changing state at constant temperature; sensible heat changes temperature. The evaporator does its useful work as latent heat, so capacity depends on how much of the coil is wet with boiling liquid. Superheat at the outlet is sensible heat and carries little capacity, but it is what keeps liquid out of the compressor. Same idea on the high side: the condenser gives up latent heat as the vapour condenses, and the desuperheating and subcooling stretches at each end are sensible.
Q14easy
Which component in a refrigeration system is responsible for the pressure drop that causes the refrigerant to change from high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid/vapor mixture?
  • A) The compressor
  • B) The evaporator
  • C) The metering device
  • D) The filter drier
Correct answer: C
Metering device (TXV or fixed orifice): creates the pressure drop separating the high and low sides of the system. The TXV (Thermostatic Expansion Valve) or fixed orifice/cap tube meters refrigerant flow, dropping pressure rapidly. This pressure drop causes partial flashing (evaporation), dramatically lowering refrigerant temperature. The resulting cold liquid/vapor mixture then enters the evaporator where it absorbs heat and fully evaporates.
Key concept: Metering device (TXV or cap tube/orifice): pressure drop point. High-pressure liquid in → low-pressure liquid/vapor out. TXV: adjustable, responds to load changes. Cap tube/fixed orifice: simple, no moving parts. Refrigerant flash at metering device = temperature drop. This is the division between high and low pressure sides.
Q15medium
What is "superheating" in the context of the refrigeration cycle, and why is it important?
  • A) Cooling the refrigerant liquid below its saturation temperature before the metering device
  • B) Heating vapour above its saturation temperature so only vapour enters the compressor
  • C) Adding heat to the condenser to improve heat rejection
  • D) Increasing refrigerant pressure above design limits to improve capacity
Correct answer: B
Superheat: additional sensible heat added to vapor above saturation temperature at a given pressure, ensuring no liquid droplets enter the compressor. Liquid refrigerant cannot be compressed — it would damage the compressor (liquid slugging). Superheat at the evaporator outlet confirms all refrigerant has evaporated. Typical evaporator superheat: 8–12°F (4–7°C). TXV controls evaporator superheat. Low superheat = risk of liquid slugging. High superheat = evaporator not fully used, reduced efficiency.
Key concept: Superheat: vapor temp above saturation. Evaporator superheat: ensures all refrigerant evaporated before compressor (prevents liquid slugging). TXV controls superheat. Normal evap superheat: 8-12°F. Measure: suction line temp minus saturation temp at suction pressure. Low = TXV open too far (flooding). High = TXV starving/undercharged.
Q16medium
How does a heat pump differ from a standard air conditioning system?
  • A) A heat pump operates at higher pressures than standard air conditioners
  • B) A heat pump does not use a compressor — it uses electrical resistance heating instead
  • C) A heat pump reverses refrigerant flow with a reversing valve to heat or cool
  • D) A heat pump uses a different refrigerant than air conditioners
Correct answer: C
Heat pump: standard refrigerant circuit with a reversing (4-way) valve that reverses flow direction, switching the roles of indoor and outdoor coils to provide both cooling and heating. In cooling mode: outdoor coil = condenser, indoor = evaporator. In heating mode: reversing valve switches — outdoor coil = evaporator (extracts heat from outdoor air), indoor coil = condenser (releases heat indoors). Heat pumps are more efficient than resistance heating because they move heat rather than create it. Efficiency measured as COP (Coefficient of Performance) or HSPF.
Key concept: Heat pump: reversing valve switches indoor/outdoor coil roles. Cooling: outdoor=condenser. Heating: outdoor=evaporator (extracts heat from air). Efficient to ~-15°C outdoor (varies by model). Below design temp: backup heat activates. Reversing valve failure: stuck in one mode, or blast of warm air in cooling (wrong mode).
Q17hard
One residential split system has a fixed orifice metering device and another has a thermostatic expansion valve. Both need charging. Which measurement is used to charge each?
  • A) Subcooling for the fixed orifice system, superheat for the TXV system
  • B) Suction pressure alone for both, matched to the ambient temperature
  • C) Superheat for the fixed orifice system, subcooling for the TXV system
  • D) Compressor amp draw for both, compared with the nameplate rated load
Correct answer: C
Charge each system by the measurement its metering device does not already hold constant. A thermostatic expansion valve exists to hold superheat: add refrigerant or take it away and the valve simply moves to keep superheat where its spring is set, so superheat tells you almost nothing about charge on that system. The surplus liquid has to go somewhere, and it shows up as subcooling at the condenser outlet — so a TXV system is charged to the subcooling value on the equipment nameplate. A fixed orifice has no feedback at all: whatever charge is in the system shows up directly at the coil outlet, so superheat is the measurement that moves with charge, and it is checked against the manufacturer's superheat table for the measured indoor wet bulb and outdoor dry bulb.

Swapping the two is the common mistake, and it produces an overcharged fixed-orifice machine or a TXV machine charged blind. Suction pressure on its own is not a charging method — it moves with load, airflow and ambient long before it moves with charge. Amp draw tells you the compressor is loaded, not whether it is loaded by refrigerant, by heat or by a fouled condenser. And whichever method applies, the air side comes first: a system with a dirty coil or a dead blower cannot be charged correctly at all.
Key concept: Charge to the measurement the metering device does not hold constant. TXV system: charge by SUBCOOLING, to the nameplate value, because the valve holds superheat regardless of charge and the surplus liquid shows itself in the condenser. Fixed orifice (piston or capillary): charge by SUPERHEAT, against the manufacturer's table for the measured indoor wet bulb and outdoor dry bulb, because a fixed restriction gives no feedback and charge shows up at the coil outlet. A sealed factory appliance is weighed in to its nameplate charge. Never charge to a suction pressure or an amp reading, and correct the air side before judging any of it.
Q18hard
How does the heat a condenser must reject compare with the heat the evaporator absorbs?
  • A) Smaller, because some heat is lost from the suction line on the way back
  • B) Equal, because the metering device gives back exactly the compressor work
  • C) Equal, because heat can be neither created nor destroyed in a sealed loop
  • D) Greater, because the work the compressor puts in is added to that heat
Correct answer: D
The condenser must reject everything the evaporator picked up plus the energy the compressor added. The electrical energy driving the compressor does not vanish; it enters the refrigerant as heat of compression, which is why discharge gas leaves a compressor hot. Total heat of rejection therefore equals the net refrigeration effect plus the heat of compression, and that is the reason an air-cooled condenser is physically larger than the evaporator it serves for the same capacity. Anything that widens the compression ratio, such as a starved evaporator, a fouled condenser or a low charge, makes the compressor work harder, adds still more heat of compression and loads the condenser further, which is one reason those faults tend to compound. Energy is indeed conserved, but not between those two coils alone: the compressor is the third party in the balance.
Key concept: Heat of rejection = net refrigeration effect + heat of compression. The condenser always handles more heat than the evaporator absorbs, so it is sized larger for the same capacity. Practical consequence: widen the compression ratio (starved coil, fouled condenser, low charge, high ambient) and the compressor adds more heat of compression, which shows up as a higher discharge temperature and a heavier load on the condenser. A heat pump uses the same fact deliberately, delivering the absorbed heat plus the compressor work to the indoor coil.
Q19hard
Explain the purpose of a liquid line filter drier in a refrigeration system and when it must be replaced.
  • A) It filters suction gas before it enters the compressor and is replaced only when the compressor fails
  • B) It maintains refrigerant charge by trapping escaped refrigerant — replaced only when fully saturated
  • C) It removes moisture and solid contaminants — replaced whenever the system is opened
  • D) It filters oil from the refrigerant and must be replaced at every annual service
Correct answer: C
Filter drier: removes moisture and debris from the refrigerant stream — must be replaced whenever the system is opened to atmosphere or moisture/acid contamination is found. Moisture in a refrigeration system reacts with refrigerant and oil to form acids (hydrolysis), causing copper plating, valve erosion, and compressor failure. The desiccant (molecular sieve or silica gel) in the drier absorbs moisture. Once exposed to atmosphere, desiccant begins absorbing ambient humidity immediately. Also traps debris that could clog the metering device. A clogged/saturated drier shows as a temperature drop and frosting across it.
Key concept: Filter drier: removes moisture (desiccant) + solid debris. Replace: whenever system opened to atmosphere. Saturated drier symptoms: frost/temperature drop across drier, restricted flow. Desiccants: molecular sieve (most refrigerants), activated alumina, silica gel. Acid contamination: use liquid-line drier with acid-neutralizing capability after burnout.
Q20medium
What is the purpose of a suction line accumulator in a refrigeration system?
  • A) To separate oil from the discharge gas before it enters the condenser
  • B) To subcool liquid refrigerant before the metering device
  • C) To store additional refrigerant charge for use during peak demand
  • D) To catch liquid refrigerant and oil before they reach the compressor
Correct answer: D
Suction accumulator: liquid trap in suction line that holds back liquid refrigerant and oil that might otherwise enter and damage the compressor (liquid slugging). Positioned between the evaporator and compressor, it allows vapor to pass through while holding back liquid. A small metered orifice slowly returns trapped oil back to the compressor. Common on heat pumps (liquid can return during defrost) and systems with large refrigerant charges. Oil trapped too long = compressor oil starvation.
Key concept: Suction accumulator: catches liquid refrigerant/oil in suction line. Protects compressor from liquid slugging. Vapor passes through; liquid held. Small orifice meters oil return to compressor. Common on: heat pumps, large refrigerant charge systems. Failed accumulator (blocked orifice): oil starvation. Liquid bypass: compressor flooding.
Q21medium
A heat pump in heating mode has low heating capacity in cold weather (below -10°C). What is the PRIMARY reason heat pumps lose efficiency at low ambient temperatures?
  • A) Falling suction pressure reduces refrigerant mass flow and heat extraction from cold air
  • B) The defrost cycle runs more frequently, consuming electricity without providing heat
  • C) Compressor discharge temperature becomes too high, triggering safety controls that reduce capacity
  • D) The reversing valve cannot fully shift at low temperatures, reducing flow
Correct answer: A
Low outdoor temperature = low suction pressure = low refrigerant density = reduced mass flow = reduced heat extraction capacity — the heat pump approaches its balance point. The coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat pump decreases as the temperature differential between indoor and outdoor increases. Below a certain balance point temperature (typically -5°C to -15°C depending on equipment), the heat pump cannot meet the building heat load and supplemental heat (electric strips or gas) is required. Cold climate heat pumps (inverter-driven) are engineered to operate efficiently down to -25°C or below.
Key concept: Heat pump heating efficiency: COP = heat delivered / work input. At 0°C outdoor: COP ≈ 3-4. At -10°C: COP ≈ 2-2.5. At -20°C: COP ≈ 1.5-2. Balance point: outdoor temperature where heat pump capacity = building heat loss. Below balance point: supplemental heat required. Cold climate HP (variable speed compressor): maintains higher capacity at low temp. Standard HP vs cold climate HP: standard = rated to -15°C. Cold climate (Mitsubishi Hyper-Heat, Daikin Altherma, etc.) = rated to -30°C+.
Q22hard
The discharge line of a three-phase semi-hermetic reciprocating compressor is running much hotter than normal, while the suction pressure and the discharge pressure both read normal for the operating conditions. What MOST LIKELY explains the high discharge temperature?
  • A) Reverse rotation from a swapped phase pair is driving the discharge temperature up
  • B) The discharge service valve is partly closed and the restriction is heating the gas
  • C) High superheat at the compressor suction — the gas enters much hotter than normal
  • D) The condenser coil is fouled and is no longer rejecting the heat of compression
Correct answer: C
Discharge temperature depends on two things: how hot the gas is when it reaches the suction port, and how far the compressor then compresses it. Both gauges read normal here, so the compression is ordinary and the heat has to be arriving with the suction gas. Compression ratio is absolute discharge pressure divided by absolute suction pressure, so it takes BOTH readings to know it; a normal head pressure on its own would settle nothing, because a normal head sitting over a low suction is a wide ratio, not a normal one. In this system the low side and the high side are each where they belong, so the compressor is doing an ordinary amount of work on the gas. Compress gas that arrives hot and it leaves hotter still, and that is the whole of the fault. Hunt for the heat between the evaporator outlet and the compressor: missing, wet or displaced suction line insulation, a suction line run through a hot ceiling space or mechanical room, or a suction-cooled compressor sitting in a hot, poorly ventilated space. Measure superheat at the coil outlet and again at the compressor suction; a normal coil reading with a much higher compressor reading puts the heat gain in the line rather than in the coil.

It matters because the return gas cools the motor of a suction-cooled compressor and sets the temperature the compression stroke starts from. Sustained high discharge temperature thins the oil and breaks it down and is hard on the valves, so treat it as a compressor-life problem rather than a nuisance reading. Take the discharge temperature on the discharge line close to the compressor, at the point the compressor manufacturer's published limit refers to, and record where it was taken, because the line a short way out runs well below the discharge port itself and a temperature without its measuring point is not a reading.

The other three answers fail against the gauges or against the machine. A fouled condenser does raise discharge temperature, but it raises condensing temperature and head pressure along with it, and head pressure here is normal. A partly closed discharge service valve is a restriction on the compressor's own outlet: throttling does not add heat to the gas passing through it, and the compressor would be discharging against the restriction, so the pressure at the compressor discharge would read high rather than normal. And reverse rotation is not a discharge-temperature fault on a reciprocating machine at all: a piston compresses the gas the same way whichever direction the crank turns, so a compressor running on a swapped phase pair pumps as before and its discharge runs no hotter for it. The very loud machine that pumps nothing and damages itself within minutes is the scroll's reverse-rotation signature, a different compressor from the one in this stem.
Key concept: Discharge temperature is a function of the temperature of the gas entering the compressor and of the compression ratio. Compression ratio needs BOTH gauges, absolute discharge pressure divided by absolute suction pressure, so a normal head pressure on its own proves nothing about it; a normal head over a low suction is a wide ratio. Normal suction AND normal discharge with a hot discharge line means hot gas is arriving at the suction port. Diagnose by comparing superheat at the evaporator outlet with superheat at the compressor suction: the difference is heat picked up on the way, from missing or wet insulation, a line run through a hot space, or a compressor in a hot, poorly ventilated location. Take the discharge reading on the discharge line close to the compressor, where the manufacturer's limit is specified, and say where you took it. There is no refrigerant-specific ceiling to memorize; the compressor manufacturer's published discharge line limit governs. Sustained high discharge temperature breaks the oil down and damages valves. Reverse rotation matters to a scroll, which pumps nothing run backwards, not to a reciprocating compressor, whose pistons compress the same way in either direction.
Q23easy
While a coil contains both liquid and vapour refrigerant, what sets the temperature inside that coil?
  • A) The dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the coil
  • B) The saturation pressure of the refrigerant in the coil
  • C) The face velocity of the air the fan drives across it
  • D) The amount of oil circulating with the refrigerant
Correct answer: B
Where liquid and vapour sit together, pressure and temperature are locked to one another. In the two-phase (saturated) part of a coil the refrigerant can only be at the saturation temperature that matches its pressure, and that pairing is exactly what a pressure-temperature chart lists. It is why a suction gauge reading gives the technician the evaporator temperature and a discharge gauge reading gives the condensing temperature, with no thermometer on the coil at all. Air temperature and fan speed matter, but they act on the pressure: more load drives the pressure up and the saturation temperature rises with it, so the temperature follows the pressure rather than the other way round. Once the refrigerant is all vapour (superheated) or all liquid (subcooled) the link is broken, and temperature must then be measured with a thermometer as well as a gauge.
Key concept: Saturated refrigerant: pressure fixes temperature, which is what a pressure-temperature chart tabulates. Read evaporator temperature off the suction gauge and condensing temperature off the discharge gauge. Load and airflow move the pressure; temperature follows. Outside the saturated region the link is gone, which is precisely why superheat and subcooling each need a gauge and a thermometer. On a blend with glide the chart gives two saturation temperatures at one pressure, so the reading has to be taken at the right one.
Refrigerants 25 questions
Q24easy
Why has R-22 refrigerant been phased out in Canada?
  • A) It is too expensive to produce
  • B) It is not efficient enough for modern systems
  • C) It reacts with copper tubing
  • D) It is an ozone-depleting HCFC
Correct answer: D
R-22 (HCFC) = ozone depleter. Because of its ozone-depleting potential, Canada phased out R-22 production and import under the Montreal Protocol. As of 2020, R-22 can only be used from recovered/recycled stock. Common replacements include R-410A (new systems) and R-407C (retrofit).
Key concept: R-22 = HCFC, ozone depleting, phased out. R-410A = HFC, no ozone impact, higher pressure. R-134a = automotive AC.
Q25medium
A technician needs a cylinder to recover refrigerant from a system in Canada. Which cylinder is acceptable?
  • A) The disposable cylinder the new refrigerant charge was supplied in
  • B) A cylinder marked to a Transport Canada specification and in date
  • C) A shop-built vessel fitted with a relief valve and a pressure gauge
  • D) Any cylinder rated above the refrigerant's saturation pressure
Correct answer: B
A cylinder that will hold recovered refrigerant is a pressure receptacle for the transport of dangerous goods, so it has to carry a specification Transport Canada authorizes and it has to be within its requalification date. Transport Canada's own container pages describe the permanent TC markings a specification cylinder carries under CSA B339, and the requalifier's registered mark and date stamped on the cylinder each time it is requalified; CSA B340 governs the selection and use of those containers. Cylinders sold here are frequently dual-marked, because Transport Canada also lists DOT cylinders manufactured to the American rules among the authorized container types — so 'DOT-rated' on its own is US shorthand, and what actually matters is a specification Transport Canada accepts, plus a current requalification date.

A single-use disposable cylinder is out on both counts: it was never built to be refilled, it has no overfill protection, and refilling it is prohibited. A shop-built vessel carries no specification marking at all, whatever fittings are hung on it. And a pressure rating is not a specification: a cylinder can be strong enough for the gas and still be unmarked, unauthorized or long out of date. Fill by weight against the cylinder's tare and rated capacity so a vapour space is left, and keep a separate, clearly labelled cylinder for a burnout or for mixed refrigerant.
Key concept: Recovery cylinders in Canada are pressure receptacles under the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations: built, marked and periodically requalified to a Transport Canada specification. CSA B339 governs manufacture, marking and requalification; CSA B340 governs selection and use. Many cylinders sold here are dual-marked DOT/TC, because Transport Canada also authorizes DOT specification cylinders. Before filling, check the specification mark and the requalification date. Never refill a disposable cylinder, never fill past the marked capacity by weight, and keep a separate labelled cylinder for burnout or mixed refrigerant.
Q26hard
R-410A operates at significantly higher pressures than R-22. What is the approximate high-side pressure of R-410A at 35°C condensing temperature?
  • A) 175 psi
  • B) 450 psi
  • C) 290 psi
  • D) 380 psi
Correct answer: C
R-410A at a 35°C (95°F) condensing temperature sits near 295 psig on the high side, so 290 psi is the closest choice. R-22 at that same 35°C sits near 182 psig, so the gap at condensing conditions is about 60 per cent. Lower down the curve the gap is wider: at a 40°F evaporator temperature R-22 is near 69 psig while R-410A is near 118 psig, about 70 per cent higher. There is no single multiplier that covers the whole curve, which is why any comparison of the two has to name the saturation temperature it is made at, and has to compare gauge with gauge — reading one refrigerant as gauge pressure and the other as absolute makes the gap look far smaller than it is. On a hot day the measured head pressure runs higher still, because the condensing temperature sits well above ambient. All of this is why R-410A systems require components, hoses, gauges and recovery equipment rated for the higher pressure.
Key concept: Compare refrigerants gauge to gauge at the SAME saturation temperature. R-410A runs about 60% above R-22 at condensing conditions (35°C / 95°F: roughly 295 against 182 psig) and about 70% above at evaporator conditions (40°F: roughly 118 against 69 psig), so one multiplier does not describe both ends of the curve. Use only R-410A rated hoses, gauges and recovery equipment.
Q27easy
Why must polyol ester (POE) oil be kept in a sealed container and its open time on site kept short?
  • A) POE thickens on contact with air and will no longer reach bearings
  • B) POE evaporates once opened, so the container loses usable volume
  • C) POE pulls moisture out of the air quickly and then holds onto it
  • D) POE stops mixing with refrigerant once exposed to direct daylight
Correct answer: C
POE is hygroscopic: it absorbs atmospheric moisture far faster than mineral oil, and it holds that water chemically rather than simply carrying it along. That is what makes it a field problem. Free water in a system can be boiled off with a deep vacuum, but moisture bound into POE largely will not come out on the vacuum pump, so an open pail left on the truck for an afternoon can carry water straight into a circuit that was correctly evacuated. Water plus POE plus heat gives hydrolysis, hydrolysis gives acid, and acid gives copper plating, varnished valves and eventually a burnout. Working practice follows from that: buy oil in the smallest sensible container, keep the cap on until the moment of use, pour rather than leave it standing open, never return poured oil to the container, and fit a fresh liquid line drier whenever the circuit has been opened. POE is used in the first place because HFC and HFO refrigerants are not miscible with mineral oil, so this handling discipline is the price of that compatibility.
Key concept: POE oil is hygroscopic: it takes up atmospheric moisture quickly, and evacuation will not reliably remove what it has absorbed. Moisture plus POE plus heat gives hydrolysis, then acid, then copper plating and compressor failure. Practice: sealed containers, minimum open time, small containers, never reuse poured oil, and replace the liquid line drier whenever the system has been opened. Mineral oil is far less hygroscopic, which is why the discipline is stricter on the HFC and HFO systems that require POE.
Q28medium
When recovering refrigerant from a system, the technician must:
  • A) Mix it with the new refrigerant cylinder to save cost
  • B) Release it outdoors if it is a small quantity (under 1 kg)
  • C) Release it slowly to prevent pressure spike in the room
  • D) Use a certified recovery machine and approved cylinder
Correct answer: D
All refrigerant must be recovered with certified recovery equipment into an approved recovery cylinder. In Canada that means a TC specification cylinder. Transport Canada's requirements for manufacturing, inspection, testing, marking and requalification of cylinders are set out in CSA B339, which CSA B340 invokes for TC specification cylinders authorized for use in Canada under the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations. DOT is the United States Department of Transportation, so a DOT stamp is the American specification; cylinders sold in North America are commonly marked to both, and the marking to look for on this side of the border is TC. Releasing refrigerant to atmosphere is prohibited: the Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 made under CEPA 1999 forbid it for systems under federal jurisdiction - Crown-owned systems, federal works and undertakings, and systems on federal or Indigenous lands - and everywhere else the use and handling of these substances are regulated by the province or territory through its own halocarbon regulation. There is no small-quantity exemption and no acceptable way to vent slowly. Never mix refrigerants in one cylinder; a mixed cylinder cannot be reclaimed and becomes waste for destruction.
Key concept: Refrigerant recovery is mandatory with no quantity exemption: certified recovery equipment plus a TC specification recovery cylinder (Transport Canada requirements set out in CSA B339, invoked by CSA B340 under the TDG Regulations). DOT is the US specification - many cylinders carry both marks, so confirm the TC marking. Never vent to atmosphere: prohibited by the Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 under CEPA 1999 where federal jurisdiction applies, and by the provincial or territorial halocarbon regulation everywhere else. Never mix refrigerants in a recovery cylinder.
Q29medium
Why must a recovery cylinder never be filled with liquid refrigerant to the top of its internal volume?
  • A) The recovery machine cannot pull a vacuum on a cylinder holding liquid
  • B) Trapped liquid has no room to expand when warmed and can burst it
  • C) A blend separates into its components once the vapour space is gone
  • D) The cylinder valve passes vapour only and will seize on liquid flow
Correct answer: B
Liquid refrigerant expands strongly with temperature and is very nearly incompressible, so a liquid-full cylinder has nothing left to absorb that expansion. Leave a vapour space and a warm afternoon simply walks the pressure up the saturation curve, which is what the cylinder is built for. Fill it solid and the same temperature rise has nowhere to go: pressure climbs hydrostatically, far faster and far higher than any saturation pressure, and the cylinder can rupture. That is why recovery cylinders are filled by weight, checked against the tare weight and the capacity marked on the cylinder itself, and why many are fitted with a float or a shut-off that stops the machine before the cylinder fills. Two related rules come from the same physics: never put a flame or other heat source on a cylinder to speed up a transfer, and never refill a disposable single-use cylinder, which has no overfill protection and was not built to be filled again.
Key concept: Liquid refrigerant is nearly incompressible and expands with temperature. A cylinder filled liquid-full has no vapour space to take that expansion, so a modest temperature rise produces hydrostatic pressure well beyond the saturation pressure the cylinder is rated for, which is a rupture hazard. Fill recovery cylinders by weight using the tare and the rated capacity marked on the cylinder, use float or overfill shut-offs, keep cylinders out of direct sun, never heat a cylinder with a flame, and never refill a disposable cylinder.
Q30hard
A technician is working with R-32 (a single-component A2L refrigerant). The "A2L" classification means:
  • A) Lower toxicity, mildly flammable
  • B) Non-toxic and completely non-flammable
  • C) Higher toxicity, lower flammability
  • D) Extremely flammable — requires spark-proof tools
Correct answer: A
A2L means lower toxicity and the lower-flammability subclass: A for toxicity, 2L for flammability. Under the ASHRAE 34 safety group system the letter is toxicity — A is lower toxicity, B is higher — and the number is flammability: 1 is no flame propagation when tested to the standard, 2 is lower flammability, and 3 is higher flammability, the group the hydrocarbons fall into. 2L is not a fourth class but a subclass sitting inside class 2, for refrigerants whose burning velocity is 10 cm/s or less. R-32 will burn, but slowly and only in a fairly narrow set of conditions.

That does not make it something to treat casually. A2L work calls for no open flames or other ignition sources, adequate ventilation, leak detection where the standard requires it, and recovery equipment and tools rated for A2L service. The remaining answers each fail on one half of the group: an A1 refrigerant would be lower toxicity with no flame propagation, higher toxicity would be a B group, and the highly flammable group is 3, not 2L.
Key concept: ASHRAE 34 safety groups: the letter is toxicity (A lower, B higher); the number is flammability — 1 no flame propagation, 2 lower flammability, 3 higher flammability, with 2L a subclass of class 2 for refrigerants whose burning velocity is 10 cm/s or less. R-32, R-1234yf and R-454B are A2L; R-22, R-410A and R-134a are A1; CO₂ (R-744) is A1; propane (R-290) is A3. A2L handling: no ignition sources, ventilation, A2L-rated recovery equipment and tools.
Q31medium
When adding refrigerant to a system that uses a zeotropic blend (like R-404A), the technician must:
  • A) Mix R-404A components separately to get the correct ratio
  • B) Add from the liquid phase of the cylinder (cylinder inverted)
  • C) Add it slowly in vapour phase to avoid composition change
  • D) Add refrigerant only with the compressor running
Correct answer: B
Zeotropic blends: always charge from liquid phase (cylinder inverted). Zeotropic blend components have different vapour pressures — if charged as vapour, lighter components vaporize first, leaving the heavier ones behind. This changes the composition in both the cylinder and the system. Charging from liquid phase maintains the correct blend ratio.
Key concept: R-404A, R-407C, R-410A blend charging: always liquid phase from inverted cylinder. Add through liquid line side (king valve) or through suction slowly to avoid slugging compressor.
Q32easy
R-410A is a near-azeotropic blend of R-32 and R-125. What does that classification mean for the way it is put into a system?
  • A) It is a single-component refrigerant, so vapour charging is fine
  • B) Its components boil off at different rates, so charge it as liquid
  • C) The very small glide lets vapour be added without shifting the blend
  • D) The blend needs mineral oil and cannot go into a POE-charged system
Correct answer: B
Near-azeotropic still means a blend, and blends are charged as liquid. Two things get confused here, and they are separate. Glide is about how the blend behaves inside the system: R-410A is near-azeotropic, meaning its bubble point and dew point sit almost on top of each other, so it can be read off a pressure-temperature chart much like a single fluid. Composition is about what leaves the cylinder: R-32 is the more volatile of the two components, so vapour drawn off the top of a cylinder is richer in R-32 and both the cylinder and the system end up off-specification. That is fractionation, and a small glide does not prevent it. Charging liquid, through the cylinder liquid valve or with the cylinder inverted, delivers the blend at its intended ratio; meter it into the suction line so the compressor is not slugged, or weigh it into the high side with the system off. R-410A is also an HFC that runs on polyol ester oil, not mineral oil.
Key concept: Blends are charged as liquid so their components enter in the intended ratio. Vapour drawn off a cylinder is richer in the more volatile component, which leaves both the cylinder and the system off-specification — fractionation. Glide is a separate question: R-410A is near-azeotropic and has almost no glide, so it reads like a single fluid on a P-T chart, while R-407C and R-448A have real glide and need the bubble-point column for subcooling and the dew-point column for superheat. All of them are still charged as liquid. R-410A uses polyol ester (POE) oil.
Q33medium
The refrigerant R-600a (isobutane) is used in domestic refrigerators. What special precaution is required when servicing these units?
  • A) It is a flammable A3 hydrocarbon — no ignition sources, rated recovery equipment
  • B) R-600a has a very high GWP, so the charge must go into a high-pressure cylinder
  • C) R-600a runs at very high pressure, so ordinary service gauges cannot be connected
  • D) R-600a requires POE oil, and beyond that oil change no precautions are needed
Correct answer: A
R-600a (isobutane) is a highly flammable A3 refrigerant — flammability is the primary hazard. Hydrocarbon refrigerants (R-600a, R-290/propane) have excellent thermodynamic properties but they burn. They are used in small-charge domestic appliances, where the charge is small enough that a full leak stays below the lower flammability limit in the room. Servicing: ventilated areas only, no open flames or sparks, non-sparking tools, and recovery equipment rated for flammable gases. These appliances must not be serviced in an enclosed space. R-600a is a low-GWP refrigerant and it operates at lower pressures than the common HFCs, so neither a GWP argument nor a high-pressure argument is what drives the precautions.
Key concept: Flammable refrigerants (A3): R-600a, R-290 (propane), R-1270. No ignition sources. Ventilated workspace. Non-sparking tools. Flammable-rated recovery equipment. Small charge only. ASHRAE Standard 34 safety classification, used here as a classification scheme: A = lower toxicity, B = higher toxicity; 1 = no flame propagation, 2 = lower flammability, 3 = higher flammability.
Q34hard
When recovering refrigerant from a system with a compressor that has burned out internally, what special procedure is required?
  • A) Use dedicated recovery equipment for acid-contaminated refrigerant and send it for reclamation
  • B) Vent the refrigerant to atmosphere — contaminated refrigerant cannot be safely recovered
  • C) Flush the system with nitrogen before recovering to dilute the acid
  • D) Standard recovery with a standard recovery machine — a burnt compressor does not affect the recovery procedure
Correct answer: A
Burned-out compressor: refrigerant is acid-contaminated — use dedicated equipment and send for reclamation. A burned motor creates acid and carbon deposits from the breakdown of motor windings (copper, varnish, refrigerant oil). This acid-contaminated refrigerant cannot be recycled back into a system — it must be sent to a reclamation facility (not just recycling). Use dedicated "burnout" recovery equipment to prevent contaminating your regular recovery machine, and clearly label the recovery cylinder as contaminated.
Key concept: Burnout recovery: acid-contaminated refrigerant. Use dedicated recovery equipment (separate from non-burnout recovery machine). Label cylinder clearly. Send for reclamation, not recycling. Burnout filter driers required in system after burnout repair. Test acid level before and after cleanup.
Q35medium
What is the GWP (Global Warming Potential) used to classify refrigerants, and why is it important in the Canadian regulatory context?
  • A) GWP is a pressure rating — high GWP refrigerants operate at higher pressures
  • B) GWP is a toxicity rating — higher GWP refrigerants have more health risks for service technicians
  • C) GWP is only relevant for commercial refrigeration — residential HVAC is exempt from GWP regulations
  • D) GWP compares warming impact to CO₂ over 100 years — Canada is phasing down high-GWP HFCs
Correct answer: D
GWP: climate impact relative to CO₂ over 100 years (CO₂ = 1). R-410A has a GWP of ~2,088 — one pound of R-410A released has 2,088 times the global warming impact of one pound of CO₂. Canada's HFC phase-down is set out in the federal Ozone-depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations, made under the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, which implement the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol by progressively reducing the supply of HFCs allowed into Canada and the use of high-GWP HFCs in manufactured products. Technicians must understand why refrigerants are transitioning to low-GWP alternatives (R-454B, R-32, R-1234yf, CO₂).
Key concept: GWP: global warming potential relative to CO₂ (CO₂ = 1 by definition). R-410A: GWP 2,088. R-32: GWP 675. R-454B (Opteon XL41): GWP ~466. R-1234yf: GWP 4. CO₂/R-744: GWP 1. Kigali Amendment: HFC phase-down schedule. Canada regulations: significant HFC reductions mandated.
Q36easy
Liquid refrigerant sprays from a hose connection onto a technician's bare hand. What is the immediate hazard, and what guards against it?
  • A) A freeze burn from rapid boiling; wear gloves and eye protection
  • B) A chemical burn from the acid in the refrigerant; wear a face shield
  • C) Poisoning through the skin; wear a respirator when charging a system
  • D) A mild cold burn only; rub the area briskly to restore circulation
Correct answer: A
Liquid refrigerant boils the instant it leaves the system, and it takes the latent heat it needs from whatever it lands on. On skin that is a freeze burn in a moment; in an eye it can cause permanent damage. That is why gloves and eye protection go on before a hose is connected or broken, not after. Treat the injury as frostbite: flush with lukewarm water — never hot — do not rub, do not apply direct heat, cover loosely and get medical attention. Rubbing a frozen area, which one of the answers above recommends, drives ice crystals through the tissue and makes the injury worse.

The other hazards are real but they are not this one. Common HFC and HCFC refrigerants are not acids in the cylinder, although acids do form inside a system that has run wet or burned out. They are not absorbed through the skin as poisons; the genuine inhalation hazards are oxygen displacement, because refrigerant vapour is heavier than air and pools in pits, basements and machinery rooms, and the toxic products formed when refrigerant meets a flame or a hot surface. Venting vapour also carries oil and debris with it, which is the second reason for eye protection.
Key concept: Liquid refrigerant flashing to vapour draws its latent heat from whatever it touches, so a spray on skin is a freeze burn and a splash in the eye can blind. Gloves and eye protection go on before hoses are connected or disconnected. First aid is frostbite first aid: flush with lukewarm water, no rubbing, no direct heat, loose covering, medical attention. The other refrigerant hazards to keep in view: oxygen displacement by heavier-than-air vapour collecting in pits, basements and machinery rooms, and the toxic decomposition products formed when refrigerant meets a flame or a hot surface — which is also why brazing is never done on a charged system.
Q37easy
Refrigerants R-717 (ammonia) and R-744 (carbon dioxide) both carry numbers in the 700 series. What does that series indicate?
  • A) A zeotropic blend, numbered in the order it was registered
  • B) A hydrocarbon refrigerant, numbered by its number of carbons
  • C) A high-pressure refrigerant, numbered by its working pressure
  • D) An inorganic compound, numbered as 700 plus its molecular mass
Correct answer: D
The 700 series is reserved for inorganic refrigerants, and the last two digits are the substance's molecular mass. Ammonia has a molecular mass of 17, so it is R-717; carbon dioxide is 44, so it is R-744; water is 18, so it is R-718; air is taken as 29, so it is R-729. The series is worth knowing because a number tells you immediately what family you are dealing with. The 400 series is zeotropic blends and the 500 series azeotropic blends, and both are numbered in the order they were registered rather than by what is in them — which is why R-407A and R-407C hold the same components in different proportions, are different refrigerants, and are not interchangeable. The 600 series covers organic compounds, including R-600a, isobutane. Halocarbons take their numbers from their chemical formula.

What a refrigerant number never encodes is a pressure rating or a safety property. Toxicity and flammability come from the separate ASHRAE safety group — the letter-and-number code such as A1, A2L or A3 — and pressure comes from the refrigerant's own saturation curve, which is why the pressure-temperature chart exists.
Key concept: Refrigerant numbering: the 700 series is inorganic substances, numbered 700 plus molecular mass — ammonia R-717 (17), carbon dioxide R-744 (44), water R-718 (18), air R-729 (29). The 400 series is zeotropic blends and the 500 series azeotropic blends; both are numbered in registration order, so R-407A and R-407C are different refrigerants holding the same components in different proportions. The 600 series covers organic compounds such as R-600a. Halocarbons are numbered from their chemical formula. The number says nothing about toxicity, flammability or pressure — that is the separate ASHRAE safety group.
Q38medium
R-410A operates at much higher pressures than R-22. What does this mean for equipment and technician safety?
  • A) R-410A needs gauges and hoses rated for its pressures; R-22 sets can fail
  • B) R-410A needs less recovery, since its pressure pushes the charge out by itself
  • C) R-410A charges are smaller because of the pressure, so cylinders are smaller
  • D) R-410A can be serviced with R-22 equipment, since both are in one family
Correct answer: A
R-410A works far above R-22, so gauges, hoses and recovery equipment rated only for R-22 can rupture on it. Compare the two gauge to gauge at the SAME saturation temperature, or the difference becomes whatever the two machines happened to be doing that day. At a 40°F evaporator temperature R-22 sits near 69 psig and R-410A near 118 psig, about 70 per cent higher. At a 110°F condensing temperature R-22 sits near 226 psig and R-410A near 364 psig, about 60 per cent higher. So the gap is widest at low-side conditions and narrows on the high side, and there is no single multiplier that covers both ends.

What follows is practical. Use a manifold set and hoses marked for R-410A service pressures and a recovery machine rated for it. The service ports differ as well — 5/16 inch flare on R-410A against 1/4 inch on R-22 — so the fittings themselves discourage cross-connection. Nothing about the higher pressure reduces the duty to recover: the charge still comes out with recovery equipment. Charge quantities are set by the equipment, not by the pressure. And the two refrigerants are not interchangeable in service equipment, in components, or in oil: R-410A runs on polyol ester oil, R-22 on mineral oil.
Key concept: R-410A against R-22, compared gauge to gauge at the same saturation temperature: about 70% higher at evaporator conditions (40°F: roughly 118 against 69 psig) and about 60% higher at condensing conditions (110°F: roughly 364 against 226 psig) — one multiplier does not describe both ends. R-22 rated gauges and hoses are not rated for R-410A; use a manifold set, hoses and recovery machine marked for R-410A service pressures. Service ports are 5/16 inch flare on R-410A against 1/4 inch on R-22. R-410A uses POE oil, R-22 mineral oil.
Q39medium
What is refrigerant fractionation?
  • A) A zeotropic blend separating into its components when it leaves as vapour
  • B) A zeotropic blend changing temperature as it boils at one constant pressure
  • C) An HFC refrigerant breaking down into acids where moisture and heat are present
  • D) Liquid refrigerant flashing to vapour in the liquid line ahead of the metering device
Correct answer: A
Fractionation is a zeotropic blend separating into its components, and it happens whenever the blend leaves as vapour: through a leak from a part of the system holding vapour, or when vapour is drawn off the top of a cylinder. The components of a zeotropic blend do not share a boiling point, so the vapour standing above the liquid is always richer in the more volatile one. What escapes through a vapour leak, and what comes out of the valve of an upright cylinder, is therefore not the blend that went in. The mixture left behind is short of that component, so both the cylinder and the system end up off specification, and the operating pressures and the capacity move away from what the pressure-temperature chart for that refrigerant says they should be.

Near-azeotropic is not an exemption. R-410A is a mixture of R-32 and R-125, R-32 is the more volatile of the two, and vapour drawn off the top of an R-410A cylinder is richer in R-32 exactly as it is with R-407C or R-404A. What near-azeotropic describes is glide, meaning how close the bubble point and the dew point sit and therefore how much like a single fluid the blend reads inside a running system. A small glide says nothing about composition at the cylinder valve. Only a true azeotrope, whose vapour and liquid hold the same composition at the boiling point, resists this.

The other three describe real things under the wrong name. A zeotropic blend changing temperature while it boils at one pressure is temperature glide: a property of the blend at its intended composition, read as the bubble point and the dew point on its chart, and it is present whether or not any fractionation has occurred. Refrigerant breaking down into acids in the presence of moisture and heat is hydrolysis, the contamination a filter drier and an acid test are there to catch. Liquid flashing to vapour ahead of the metering device is flash gas, a loss of subcooling that a sight glass shows as bubbles; the composition of the refrigerant has not changed at all.

Practice follows from the definition. Every zeotropic blend, the near-azeotropic ones included, is charged as liquid, through the cylinder liquid valve or with the cylinder inverted, metered into the suction line so the compressor is not slugged. A leaking system is never topped up, whatever the refrigerant: recover, repair the leak, pressure test, evacuate and weigh in the charge. With a zeotropic blend there is a second reason for that rule, because what remains after a vapour leak is no longer the refrigerant named on the cylinder, so the recovered remainder is not put back into the system.
Key concept: Fractionation: a zeotropic blend separating into its components because the vapour above the liquid is richer in the more volatile one. It happens at a vapour leak and at the cylinder valve when vapour is drawn off, leaving both the cylinder and the system off specification. Near-azeotropic is not immunity: R-410A is R-32 and R-125, the R-32 comes off first, and near-azeotropic only means very little glide. Only a true azeotrope resists it. Do not confuse it with glide (the temperature range a zeotropic blend boils or condenses across at one pressure, bubble point to dew point, a property of the blend at its intended composition), with acid formation (moisture plus heat, hydrolysis) or with flash gas (loss of subcooling ahead of the metering device). Practice: charge every zeotropic blend as liquid, through the liquid valve or with the cylinder inverted, metered into the suction line so the compressor is not slugged. Never top up a leaking system, whatever the refrigerant: recover, repair, pressure test, evacuate, weigh in. With a zeotropic blend the remainder after a vapour leak is off composition and is not returned to the system.
Q40hard
A refrigeration contractor is servicing the rack system in a supermarket owned by a private grocery chain, on privately owned land in a Canadian city. Which halocarbon rules govern how the refrigerant is handled on that job?
  • A) The Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022, made under the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999
  • B) The halocarbon regulation of the province or territory where the work is done
  • C) The federal Ozone-depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations
  • D) The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations and the TC recovery cylinder specification
Correct answer: B
On a privately owned commercial system on private land, the halocarbon rules that bind the technician are the province's or territory's own, not the federal ones. The Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 (SOR/2022-110), made under the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, open with an application section: they apply to air-conditioning or refrigeration systems, solvent systems, fire-extinguishing systems and containers located in Canada that are owned by Her Majesty in right of Canada, a board or agency of the Government of Canada, a Crown corporation as defined in the Financial Administration Act, or a federal work or undertaking, or that are located on aboriginal lands or federal lands. A supermarket owned by a private grocery chain on private land is none of those, so that instrument does not reach this job.

Inside its own scope the federal regulation is strict, and it is worth knowing in its own terms because federal sites do come up. It provides that a person must not release, or allow or cause the release of, a halocarbon contained in an air-conditioning or refrigeration system, a fire-extinguishing system or a container, or in equipment used in the reuse, recycling, reclamation or storage of a halocarbon. The prohibition does not apply if the release is for the purpose of calibrating leak-detecting devices with equipment designed specifically for that purpose and the manufacturer's recommended procedures are followed; results from connecting or disconnecting hoses that are less than 1 m in length and used for charging with, or recovering, a halocarbon; results from a purge system on an air-conditioning or refrigeration system, including any associated recovery equipment, that emits less than 0.1 kg of halocarbon per kilogram of air purged; or is from a fire-extinguishing system for the purpose of fighting a fire that is not set for training purposes, or of testing the system in a military vehicle as authorized by a permit. Note the boundaries as written: a hose of exactly one metre is not inside the hose exception, and a leak-detector calibration is only inside its exception when both conditions, the purpose-built equipment and the manufacturer's procedure, are met. The regulation also provides that only a certified person may install, service or recover a halocarbon from an air-conditioning system or refrigeration system. None of that changes who the regulation applies to.

Outside that scope, Environment and Climate Change Canada describes provincial and territorial legislation on ozone-depleting substances and halocarbon alternatives as complementing the federal regulations, and lists among its requirements proper labelling and handling of equipment, training for equipment service providers, procedures for installing, removing, servicing, repairing or decommissioning products, and a prohibition on recharging leaking equipment. So the rules that actually bind this job, meaning who may handle the refrigerant, what has to happen to it instead of a release, and what has to be recorded, come from the halocarbon regulation of the province or territory where the work is done, and they differ in detail from one province to the next.

The other two instruments are federal and are real, which is what makes them tempting. The Ozone-depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations control the manufacture, import, export, sale and use of the substances themselves, through prohibitions, permits and allowances; they contain no release prohibition for a refrigeration system and say nothing about who may service one. The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations do bear on this trade, but on the recovery cylinder, its TC specification and its movement on the road, not on how the system is serviced.
Key concept: Canada regulates halocarbon handling at two levels, and which one applies turns on who owns the system and where it sits. The Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 (SOR/2022-110) under CEPA 1999 apply to systems owned by Her Majesty in right of Canada, a board or agency of the Government of Canada, a Crown corporation or a federal work or undertaking, and to systems on aboriginal or federal lands. Within that scope release is prohibited, with exactly four exceptions written narrowly: calibrating leak-detecting devices with equipment designed specifically for that purpose and following the manufacturer's recommended procedures; connecting or disconnecting charging or recovery hoses that are less than 1 m in length; a purge system that emits less than 0.1 kg of halocarbon per kilogram of air purged; and a fire-extinguishing system used to fight a real fire or tested in a military vehicle under permit. Only a certified person may install, service or recover halocarbon from an air-conditioning or refrigeration system there. Everything else, which is most commercial and residential work, falls to the province's or territory's own halocarbon regulation, which ECCC describes as complementing the federal rules and as requiring service-provider training, servicing and decommissioning procedures, and a ban on recharging leaking equipment. Practical rule: identify the owner and the land before quoting a regulation, and work to the province you are standing in. The Ozone-depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations govern manufacture, import, export, sale and use of the substances, not servicing; the TDG Regulations govern the recovery cylinder and its transport, not the service procedure.
Q41hard
A technician is working on a commercial refrigeration system and finds a refrigerant leak. What is the correct order of steps?
  • A) Repair the leak first, then recover the remaining refrigerant, recharge, and verify operation
  • B) Vent the system to atmosphere to make it safe to work, then repair the leak and recharge
  • C) Add more refrigerant to compensate for the leak while scheduling future repair
  • D) Recover all refrigerant, repair the leak, pressure test, evacuate, then recharge
Correct answer: D
Correct leak repair procedure: Recover → Repair → Pressure test → Evacuate → Recharge. 1) Recover all refrigerant (cannot vent). 2) Repair leak. 3) Pressure/leak test with dry nitrogen to OEM spec (verify repair). 4) Release nitrogen. 5) Deep vacuum (500 microns or below) — removes all moisture and air. 6) Recharge with new/virgin or reclaimed refrigerant to manufacturer specification. Record refrigerant quantity. Document all work per regulations.
Key concept: Leak repair order: 1)Recover refrigerant 2)Repair leak 3)Nitrogen pressure test (leak check repair) 4)Release nitrogen 5)Deep vacuum (≤500 microns, hold 15 min) 6)Recharge to spec. Never add refrigerant to leaking system. Document recovery amount, charge amount, technician certification number. On an ordinary commercial system the release prohibition, the duty to recover into a proper container and the record keeping come from the halocarbon regulation of the province where the work is done; the Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 (SOR/2022-110) under CEPA 1999 carry the same duties for federal works, undertakings and federal lands.
Q42medium
What is the difference between refrigerant recovery, reclaim, and recycling?
  • A) Recovery: venting refrigerant safely through a filter. Reclaim: any reuse of recovered refrigerant. Recycling: destroying old refrigerant
  • B) Recovery: removing to a container. Recycling: basic cleanup for reuse. Reclaiming: reprocessing to virgin purity
  • C) Recovery, reclaim, and recycling are all the same process with different names used by different manufacturers
  • D) Recovery and reclaim are identical; recycling means mixing refrigerants for reuse
Correct answer: B
Three distinct terms: Recovery (remove to cylinder), Recycling (on-site oil/moisture cleanup), Reclaiming (certified facility to AHRI 700 virgin purity). Recovery: extracting refrigerant from a system into an approved recovery cylinder — mandatory before opening. Recycling: passing recovered refrigerant through filters and oil separators for reuse on the SAME system or same owner's equipment. Reclaiming: sending to a certified reclaim facility for processing to AHRI Standard 700 purity (essentially virgin quality, sold for any use).
Key concept: Recovery: extract refrigerant into cylinder (required, no purification). Recycling: basic cleanup (oil/moisture) for same-system reuse (not sold). Reclaiming: AHRI 700 virgin purity at certified facility (can be sold/reused anywhere). Contaminated refrigerant (mixed refrigerants, high moisture, high acid) must be reclaimed or destroyed — cannot be recycled.
Q43hard
When using an electronic refrigerant leak detector, what is an important limitation technicians should be aware of?
  • A) Detectors are calibrated for specific refrigerant families and can false-alarm on other chemicals
  • B) Electronic detectors cannot detect any R-410A leaks because R-410A has no odor
  • C) Electronic detectors cannot be used when the system is running — only when it is off
  • D) Electronic detectors must be placed at the highest point of the room since refrigerants are lighter than air
Correct answer: A
Electronic leak detectors have limitations: cross-sensitivity to other chemicals, calibration for specific refrigerant groups, and possible misses of certain refrigerant types. Heated diode detectors: very sensitive but can trigger on alcohol, chlorinated solvents, and other halogens (false positives). Infrared detectors: more selective, fewer false positives. All detectors: sensitivity degrades over time (sensor element replacement needed). Most refrigerants are heavier than air (except ammonia) — check at low points. Always confirm finds with UV dye or soap bubble solution.
Key concept: Electronic leak detector limitations: false positives (alcohol, solvents with halogenated diode type). Sensor degrades over time. Refrigerants mostly heavier than air — check at low points, floor level. Methods: 1)Electronic detector (scan from bottom up), 2)UV dye + UV light, 3)Soap bubbles (confirm only). Use nitrogen pressure test to verify repair — detector cannot confirm leak-tight.
Q44medium
R-410A is being phased out in favour of lower-GWP refrigerants under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol. Which refrigerant is commonly replacing R-410A in new residential air conditioning equipment?
  • A) CO₂ (R-744) — carbon dioxide is replacing R-410A in all air conditioning applications
  • B) R-404A — a direct substitute with identical operating pressures
  • C) R-32 or R-454B — lower-GWP A2L refrigerants with similar performance
  • D) R-22 — this refrigerant has a lower GWP and is being reintroduced
Correct answer: C
R-32 (GWP 675) and R-454B (GWP 466) are primary replacements for R-410A (GWP 2088), with similar performance characteristics. Both are A2L classified (mildly flammable) — requiring specific compressors and system design, updated components, leak detection in equipment, and technician training. R-32 is a single-component refrigerant with simpler reclaim. R-454B is a blend. Both use POE oil, similar to R-410A systems. Some manufacturers also use R-466A (non-flammable, higher GWP than R-32 but lower than R-410A).
Key concept: R-410A phase-down: Kigali Amendment (2016) targets HFCs by GWP. Canada: following HFC phase-down schedule. R-410A GWP = 2088. Replacements: R-32 (GWP 675, A2L), R-454B (GWP 466, A2L), R-466A (non-flammable, GWP ~733). A2L refrigerants: mildly flammable (lower flammability limit, low burning velocity). Require: compatible equipment design, leak detection, special handling. Not interchangeable with R-410A — different pressures, different lubricants may be required. Training required before handling A2L refrigerants.
Q45hard
A technician is performing a system conversion from R-22 to R-407C (a common R-22 retrofit blend — NOT a drop-in: it requires conversion to POE oil). After the conversion, the system runs but suction pressure is lower than expected and capacity seems reduced. What is the MOST likely cause?
  • A) R-407C requires a higher condensing pressure — adjust the head pressure control to 50 psi higher
  • B) R-407C is not compatible with R-22 systems — the conversion cannot succeed
  • C) The TXV is still sized and set for R-22 — it needs recalibration or replacement
  • D) The compressor oil is contaminated — drain and refill with mineral oil
Correct answer: C
A TXV calibrated for R-22 may not perform correctly with R-407C due to different thermodynamic properties (latent heat, pressure-temperature relationship). R-407C is a zeotropic blend (R-32/125/134a) with temperature glide — its saturation characteristics differ from R-22. A TXV calibrated for R-22 can pass incorrect refrigerant flow for R-407C operating conditions, and the sensing bulb charge must be compatible with R-407C. Also: check that TXV superheat setting is appropriate for R-407C, measuring superheat against the dew-point temperature from the R-407C pressure-temperature chart. Some TXVs are adjustable; others require replacement with R-407C-rated valves. R-407C is not a drop-in — mineral oil must be replaced with POE.
Key concept: R-22 to R-407C conversion: 1) Flush system while still running on R-22 where possible (if mineral oil — remove residual oil, add POE; repeat the oil change until residual mineral oil is about 5% or less, usually three or four changes). 2) Remove R-22 (recover, reclaim). 3) Replace filter drier. 4) Check/replace TXV (R-407C specific or adjustable). 5) Charge with R-407C by weight, removing it from the cylinder as liquid (vapour drawn off a zeotropic blend has a shifted composition); flash it to vapour with the gauge manifold or a throttling valve if needed, and never let liquid enter the compressor suction. 6) Set superheat. R-407C temperature glide: roughly 5-7°C at typical evaporating pressures, narrower at condensing pressures — use the dew-point temperature for superheat and the bubble-point temperature for subcooling.
Q46easy
Under Canadian regulations, what must a technician be able to show before a supplier may sell them refrigerant for servicing refrigeration or air conditioning equipment?
  • A) No certificate is required — refrigerant may be sold to any purchaser in any quantity
  • B) A valid refrigerant handling certificate, such as the Ozone Depletion Prevention card
  • C) A separate purchase permit issued by Environment and Climate Change Canada each time
  • D) Only the employer's contractor licence, which covers everyone the business employs
Correct answer: B
The seller has to be satisfied, before the sale, that the buyer holds a valid refrigerant handling certificate. In Canada this requirement is provincial, not federal. Ontario's page on the certificate to handle refrigerants states that an Ozone Depletion Prevention (ODP) certificate card is needed to purchase and handle refrigerants, under O. Reg. 463/10. British Columbia's Ozone Depleting Substances and Other Halocarbons Regulation, s. 6(2), lets a person buy for servicing air conditioning or refrigeration equipment only if the person first gives the seller satisfactory proof of being an approved person. The certificate is personal to the technician, so an employer's licence does not stand in for it, and there is no per-transaction federal permit. On the federal side, the Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 under CEPA 1999 cover systems owned by federal departments and by federal works and undertakings; use and handling on an ordinary commercial system fall to the province.
Key concept: Refrigerant handling certification in Canada comes from the province, not from Ottawa. Ontario: an ODP card is required to purchase and handle refrigerants (O. Reg. 463/10). British Columbia: the buyer must give the seller satisfactory proof of being an approved person before the purchase. HRAI administers the ODP/ODS certification and wallet card used across most of the country. Federal side: the Federal Halocarbon Regulations, 2022 under CEPA 1999 apply to federal works and undertakings, and the Ozone-depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations govern manufacture, import and export — neither sets a certificate threshold based on container size. Practical duties that go with the card: refrigerant must be recovered rather than vented, recovery equipment must be used whenever a system is opened, and the provincial halocarbon regulation sets the service and leak records that must be kept.
Q47medium
Per CSA B52 (Mechanical Refrigeration Code), a refrigeration system large enough to require a dedicated machinery (machine) room must include which safety provision in that room?
  • A) An oxygen-enrichment supply to replace air displaced by a leak
  • B) A natural-draft louvre no larger than 0.5 m² with no powered ventilation
  • C) A refrigerant vapour detector that sounds an alarm and starts mechanical (emergency) ventilation
  • D) A carbon monoxide detector interlocked to the building fire alarm
Correct answer: C
CSA B52 machinery rooms require refrigerant detection plus emergency mechanical ventilation. A refrigerant vapour detector monitors the room and, at a set concentration, sounds an alarm and starts (or increases) mechanical ventilation to purge the leak. This guards against oxygen displacement/asphyxiation with any refrigerant and against ignition with flammable or A2L refrigerants. A CO detector is for combustion (fuel-burning) appliances, not refrigerant leaks. The 2023 edition (B52:23) adds dedicated A2L detection and ventilation provisions.
Key concept: CSA B52 machinery room: refrigerant detector → alarm + emergency mechanical ventilation at a set concentration. Protects against asphyxiation (all refrigerants) and ignition (A2L/flammable). B52:23 adds A2L-specific detection/ventilation. A CO detector is for combustion appliances, not refrigerant leaks.
Q48medium
Under CSA B52, what primarily determines whether a refrigeration system must be isolated in a dedicated machinery room rather than installed in an occupied space?
  • A) The refrigerant safety group and system charge relative to occupancy and room volume
  • B) The footprint of the condensing unit relative to the available mechanical room area
  • C) The compressor type and the number of compressors serving the refrigeration system
  • D) The supply voltage and the ampacity of the disconnect serving the condensing unit
Correct answer: A
CSA B52 bases the requirement on the refrigerant's safety classification, the charge quantity, the occupancy, and the volume of the space. Each refrigerant has a Refrigerant Concentration Limit. If the full system charge released into the occupied space could exceed that allowable concentration, the system has to be isolated in a machinery room with refrigerant detection and mechanical ventilation. Higher-risk occupancies — institutional and public assembly, where people cannot readily leave — carry lower allowable limits than an ordinary commercial space. How the unit is arranged and powered does not enter into it: compressor type and count, the electrical supply, and how much floor the equipment takes up are installation questions, not the trigger for the machinery room.
Key concept: CSA B52 machinery-room trigger: refrigerant safety group + charge vs. Refrigerant Concentration Limit (RCL) + occupancy + room volume. Exceed the allowable concentration on a full-charge leak → dedicated machinery room with detection + ventilation. Stricter limits in higher-occupancy spaces.
Components 22 questions
Q49easy
A walk-in cooler is wired for an automatic pump-down cycle. When the room thermostat is satisfied, what happens FIRST?
  • A) The liquid line solenoid valve closes while the compressor keeps running
  • B) The compressor contactor drops out and the solenoid valve closes at the same instant
  • C) The low-pressure control opens and then de-energizes the liquid line solenoid
  • D) The condenser fan cycles off so head pressure can bleed down before shutdown
Correct answer: A
On a pump-down system the thermostat controls the liquid line solenoid valve, not the compressor. When the box temperature is satisfied, the thermostat de-energizes the solenoid coil and the valve closes, cutting off liquid feed to the metering device. The compressor keeps running and pumps the refrigerant remaining in the evaporator and suction line forward into the condenser and receiver. Only once suction pressure has fallen to the low-pressure control's cut-out point does the compressor stop. That is the whole point of the sequence: with the evaporator and suction line emptied, there is very little refrigerant left on the low side to migrate into the cold compressor crankcase during the off cycle, so the compressor is not asked to swallow a liquid slug on the next start.

Dropping the compressor contactor and closing the solenoid at the same instant is the direct, non-pump-down control arrangement, where the thermostat breaks the compressor circuit itself. It is a real wiring method, but it leaves the evaporator flooded during every off cycle, which is exactly the migration problem pump-down exists to prevent. Having the low-pressure control open first and de-energize the solenoid reverses cause and effect: the low-pressure control does stop the compressor, but that is the end of the sequence, not the start of it, and it happens only because the solenoid has already closed. Cycling the condenser fan confuses two unrelated functions — that is head-pressure control for low-ambient operation, and it plays no part in shutting the system down. A useful field note on this circuit is that repeated pump-downs with no call for cooling point to refrigerant leaking past the closed solenoid seat or past the compressor discharge valves, refilling the low side and re-triggering the low-pressure control.
Key concept: Pump-down sequence: thermostat satisfied → liquid line solenoid closes → compressor keeps running and pumps the low side down → low-pressure control cuts the compressor out. Refrigerant is stored in the condenser and receiver so it cannot migrate to the crankcase during the off cycle, preventing liquid slugging on restart. Repeated pump-down cycles with no cooling call mean refrigerant is leaking back to the low side — suspect the solenoid seat or the compressor discharge valves.
Q50medium
How does a capillary tube metering device respond when the load on the evaporator increases?
  • A) It opens further as suction pressure rises, matching flow to load
  • B) It throttles down to protect the compressor from the added flow
  • C) It cannot respond, since bore and length fix the flow rate
  • D) It holds superheat steady by feeding more as the coil warms up
Correct answer: C
A capillary tube is a fixed restriction with no feedback: it does not meter, it simply passes whatever the pressure difference across it will push through a fixed bore. Flow depends on the tube inside diameter and length and on the difference between high-side and low-side pressure, and nothing in it senses superheat. Raise the load and the coil boils the refrigerant off early, so superheat climbs and capacity falls short of what the coil could do. Drop the load and the coil floods instead, superheat falls toward zero, and liquid can reach the compressor. Because there is no valve holding surplus refrigerant back, cap tube systems get a critical charge weighed in, run without a receiver, and often carry a suction accumulator as protection. This is precisely the behaviour a TXV exists to correct, since a TXV modulates on superheat and holds it roughly constant as the load moves.
Key concept: Capillary tube and other fixed orifices: no moving parts, no superheat feedback. Flow is set by bore, length and the pressure difference across the device. High load gives a starved coil, high superheat and lost capacity; low load gives a flooded coil, low superheat and flood-back risk. Consequences: critical charge weighed in, no receiver, accumulator common, and performance that is very sensitive to charge error in either direction. The TXV is the contrast, modulating to hold superheat as load changes.
Q51easy
What is the purpose of a liquid receiver in a refrigeration system?
  • A) To trap liquid refrigerant before it can reach the compressor suction
  • B) To separate oil from the discharge gas and send it back to the compressor
  • C) To hold spare oil that the compressor draws on during long run cycles
  • D) To store liquid refrigerant so charge can shift with load and pump-down
Correct answer: D
The receiver is high-side liquid storage, sitting between the condenser outlet and the liquid line. How much refrigerant a system needs in circulation changes with load and ambient, and a pump-down cycle deliberately parks the whole charge on the high side; the receiver gives that refrigerant somewhere to sit while still feeding a solid column of liquid to the metering device. It also lets a technician isolate and hold the charge for service without recovering it. Do not confuse it with the two vessels it is often mixed up with: a suction accumulator sits on the low side and catches liquid before the compressor, and an oil separator sits in the discharge line and returns oil to the crankcase. A receiver is never a substitute for a correct charge either, because a receiver filled to the top backs liquid up into the condenser and drives head pressure up.
Key concept: Liquid receiver: high-side liquid storage downstream of the condenser. Purposes: absorb charge shifts with load and ambient, hold the charge during pump-down or service isolation, and ensure a solid liquid seal to the metering device. Not the same as a suction accumulator (low side, protects the compressor from liquid) or an oil separator (discharge line, returns oil). A receiver with no vapour space left is a symptom of overcharge and shows up as high head pressure.
Q52medium
A hermetic compressor has a locked rotor condition. The FIRST check before replacement is:
  • A) Check for liquid flood-back and verify supply voltage
  • B) Replace the compressor immediately — locked rotor is always a mechanical failure
  • C) Recharge the system with refrigerant
  • D) Check the thermostat setpoint
Correct answer: A
Check cause before replacing compressor. Refrigerant flood-back causes liquid slugging that hydraulically locks compressor pistons. Low voltage at the compressor terminals causes high current + thermal overload. Compressor may free itself after cooling — but replacing without fixing the cause means the replacement fails too. Check: liquid slugging (suction line frost/wet), power supply and voltage at the terminals, overload conditions.
Key concept: Locked rotor: check cause first (liquid slugging, low voltage, mechanical failure). If flood-back, fix TXV/charge level. If mechanical seizure, replace. Identify acid/contamination and flush system before adding new compressor.
Q53medium
A scroll compressor in an air conditioning unit sounds rough and has lower-than-normal discharge pressure. Liquid line subcooling measures a normal 12°F. This MOST likely indicates:
  • A) The unit is low on refrigerant charge
  • B) Worn or damaged scroll wraps
  • C) Condenser fan motor failure
  • D) TXV feeding too much refrigerant to the evaporator
Correct answer: B
Scroll compressor noise plus low discharge pressure equals worn scrolls. Worn or damaged scroll wraps let gas leak back across the flanks instead of being carried around and compressed, so the machine can no longer build pressure, and the loss of a proper seal is what makes the running sound rough. Also check for refrigerant flood-back, because liquid entering the scrolls accelerates exactly this wear. Normal subcooling is what rules out the tempting alternative: an undercharged system runs short of liquid in the condenser and shows LOW subcooling alongside its low discharge pressure, and it would show low suction pressure as well rather than a rough-running compressor. A failed condenser fan drives discharge pressure up, not down, and an over-feeding expansion valve shows itself as low superheat and a cold, sweating suction line.
Key concept: Scroll compressor: worn wraps give a rough running sound, lost compression and low discharge pressure. Flood-back causes that wear, so find out why liquid is returning before fitting a replacement. Rule out a low charge on subcooling — an undercharge reads low subcooling with low suction pressure, worn wraps do not. Check scroll reverse rotation as well: two swapped phases on a three-phase machine give a very loud noise, no cooling, and damage within minutes.
Q54hard
A liquid receiver on a supermarket rack is fitted with a pressure-relief valve. Under CSA B52, the relief discharge must be:
  • A) Vented into the machinery room at low level so the vapour can be exhausted
  • B) Piped back into the suction line so the refrigerant is not lost
  • C) Piped to the outdoors, clear of building openings and air intakes
  • D) Left open at the valve outlet so that a discharge can be seen and heard
Correct answer: C
A relief discharge goes outside, not into the building. CSA B52 requires the pressure-relief device on a refrigerant pressure vessel such as a liquid receiver to discharge to the outdoors, terminating clear of doors, windows and fresh-air intakes so a release cannot re-enter the building or an occupied space. The vent line must be sized and routed so it cannot throttle the device's rated relieving capacity, and it must not be trapped, capped or valved off. Venting into the machinery room is wrong: machinery-room vapour detection and mechanical ventilation are separate requirements that deal with leaks, and they are never a substitute for a relief vent. Piping the relief into the suction line gives no protection at all, because it discharges into the same system it is supposed to protect. Leaving the outlet bare dumps the charge into the plant room. Confirm the termination heights and clearances in the edition of B52 adopted by your province.
Key concept: CSA B52 relief protection: receivers and other refrigerant pressure vessels need a pressure-relief device, and its discharge is piped to the outdoors clear of openings and air intakes. The vent line is sized so it does not reduce the device's relieving capacity, and is never trapped, capped, valved shut or terminated indoors. Machinery-room refrigerant detection and mechanical ventilation address leaks, not relief discharge. Provinces adopt B52 by reference, so the adopted edition sets the actual heights and clearances.
Q55easy
The sight glass in a refrigeration liquid line shows bubbles continuously while the system runs normally. This indicates:
  • A) Air in the refrigerant
  • B) The condenser is working too efficiently
  • C) Insufficient subcooling causing flash gas
  • D) Normal operation — bubbles are expected in the liquid line
Correct answer: C
Bubbles in sight glass = flash gas = subcooling problem. Liquid refrigerant should arrive at the metering device as a solid liquid (no bubbles). Bubbles (flash gas) indicate: refrigerant is partially vaporizing before the metering device — caused by low charge (low subcooling), restriction in liquid line (pressure drop = boiling), or high liquid line temperature.
Key concept: Sight glass: clear = full liquid flow (good). Bubbles = flash gas = insufficient subcooling or low charge. Moisture indicator: green = dry, yellow/orange = wet (change drier).
Q56medium
An evaporator is fed through a refrigerant distributor. Why must its TXV be externally equalized?
  • A) The distributor needs a second sensing bulb to balance the circuits
  • B) The distributor pressure drop would be read as evaporator pressure
  • C) The distributor raises coil pressure, so the valve must open wider
  • D) The distributor blocks the internal port, so an outside port is used
Correct answer: B
An internally equalized valve senses pressure at its own outlet, upstream of the distributor and the coil, so it never sees the pressure the bulb is reporting against. A TXV sits wherever three forces balance: bulb pressure pushing it open, and evaporator pressure plus the superheat spring pushing it closed. The distributor nozzle and its feeder tubes are a deliberate pressure drop, and the coil circuits add more, so pressure at the valve outlet is meaningfully higher than pressure back at the bulb. Feed that higher pressure into the closing side and the valve reads the coil as fuller than it really is, throttles back, and starves the coil at high superheat, which no amount of spring adjustment will fix. The external equalizer line, taken from the suction line just downstream of the bulb, gives the valve the true outlet pressure instead. A kinked, plugged or omitted equalizer line produces exactly the same starved behaviour.
Key concept: TXV force balance: bulb pressure opens; evaporator pressure plus superheat spring closes. Any real pressure drop between the valve outlet and the bulb, such as a distributor or a long heavily circuited coil, must be corrected with an external equalizer or the valve throttles back and starves the coil at high superheat. Connect the equalizer to the suction line just downstream of the bulb. Symptom of a plugged, kinked or missing equalizer line: a valve that will not feed no matter how the superheat setting is adjusted.
Q57medium
What is a thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) and how does it control refrigerant flow?
  • A) A pressure-reducing valve that maintains constant evaporator pressure regardless of load
  • B) An electrically operated valve controlled by the thermostat to start and stop refrigerant flow
  • C) A fixed orifice valve that limits refrigerant flow based on pipe diameter only
  • D) A modulating valve that feeds the evaporator based on suction line superheat
Correct answer: D
TXV: maintains constant superheat at evaporator outlet by modulating refrigerant flow. The TXV has a sensing bulb on the suction line at the evaporator outlet. As suction superheat increases (evaporator starved, more load), the bulb pressure increases and opens the valve (more refrigerant). As superheat drops (evaporator flooding risk), the spring tension closes the valve. Target: typically 8–12°F (4–7°C) superheat at design conditions.
Key concept: TXV: maintains constant superheat (typically 8–12°F). Sensing bulb on suction line → valve modulates flow. High superheat → valve opens more. Low superheat → valve closes. Troubleshoot: check superheat against spec. Hunting: sensing bulb loose or bad. Iced evaporator: the coil's saturation temperature has been driven below freezing, so look at what is underfeeding it — a restricted or stuck-closed valve or a low charge (low suction pressure with HIGH superheat), or too little air across the coil (low suction pressure with LOW superheat). A valve stuck open gives the opposite picture: low superheat, higher suction pressure, frost or sweat travelling back along the suction line to the compressor, and flood-back — not a coil iced across its face.
Q58hard
A multi-cylinder reciprocating compressor on a supermarket rack is fitted with cylinder unloaders. What happens when an unloader operates?
  • A) It bypasses discharge gas back to the suction line to lower the pressure
  • B) It holds a bank of suction valves open so those cylinders stop pumping
  • C) It slows the compressor motor so that each cylinder moves less refrigerant
  • D) It throttles the suction service valve to reduce the gas reaching the compressor
Correct answer: B
An unloader takes cylinders out of service by holding their suction valves open, so those pistons push gas back and forth into the suction manifold instead of compressing it. Capacity comes off in steps — a six-cylinder machine unloading two cylinders at a time runs at roughly two thirds and then one third of full capacity — and power falls with it, because an unloaded cylinder does very little work. Unloaders are pilot-operated, by a solenoid or by oil or suction pressure, and they earn their keep twice: matching a falling load without stopping the machine, and reducing the load the motor has to accelerate, which is why many compressors start unloaded and load up once they are turning.

Compare the alternatives. Hot gas bypass does reduce net capacity, but by feeding false load to a fully loaded compressor, so the machine keeps doing full work for less useful cooling — which is why unloading is preferred wherever it is available. Speed control is a third method again, done with a variable frequency drive or an inverter-driven compressor, not with an unloader. Throttling a suction service valve is never a capacity control: it starves the compressor of its own return gas and of the cooling that gas provides.
Key concept: Cylinder unloaders hold the suction valves of selected cylinders open so those cylinders stop pumping, stepping capacity down to match the load and cutting the load on the motor at start-up. They are pilot-operated by a solenoid, by oil pressure or by suction pressure. The other ways of matching capacity: staging multiple compressors on a rack, variable speed (VFD or inverter), digital scroll modulation, and hot gas bypass — which is the last resort, because the compressor keeps doing full work for less useful cooling. Throttling a service valve is never capacity control.
Q59easy
The moisture-indicating element in the liquid line sight glass of an operating system has changed from green to yellow. What does that tell the technician?
  • A) The charge has fallen low; add refrigerant until the element turns green again
  • B) The element has simply aged; sight glass elements discolour over time in use
  • C) Moisture is in the refrigerant; recover, fit a new drier and evacuate deeply
  • D) The oil has broken down; change the compressor oil and run the system again
Correct answer: C
The colour element in a sight glass is a moisture indicator, and yellow means the refrigerant is wet. Green means dry and yellow means moisture above the safe level; the element reacts to moisture in the refrigerant and to nothing else, and it returns to green once the system has been dried out. Moisture matters because water with refrigerant, oil and heat produces acid, and acid produces copper plating, varnished valves and eventually a burnout — and where the system runs on POE oil the water is largely held in the oil, where a vacuum will not readily take it back out.

The response is to find how the water got in — a system left open, a low side running in a vacuum through a leak, careless charging, or oil taken from a container that had been opened before — then recover, fit a fresh liquid line drier (sometimes a larger one), evacuate deeply, recharge, run, and read the element again. What the element does not report is charge or oil condition: bubbles in the clear window, not colour, are the flow indication, and oil is judged with an acid test kit. Nor is the colour change an ageing effect; it is a reversible chemical indicator.
Key concept: A liquid line sight glass reads two different things. The clear window shows the state of the liquid: steady bubbles mean flash gas — no subcooling left at that point, from a low charge or from pressure drop in a long or restricted liquid line. The colour element is a moisture indicator: green dry, yellow wet, and reversible once the system is dried. Wet refrigerant means acid, so recover, fit a fresh liquid line drier, evacuate deeply, recharge and re-read the element after a run. Charge is judged by subcooling and superheat, never by the glass alone; oil condition is judged by an acid test.
Q60medium
A hot gas defrost system is used in commercial refrigeration. How does it work?
  • A) Hot ambient air is blown over the evaporator to melt frost
  • B) Electric heating elements mounted on the evaporator fins are energized during defrost
  • C) Hot compressor discharge gas is routed through the evaporator to melt frost
  • D) The refrigerant charge is partially recovered into a storage tank, allowing the evaporator to warm naturally
Correct answer: C
Hot gas defrost: discharge gas heats evaporator from inside — efficient and fast. During hot gas defrost, solenoid valves redirect superheated compressor discharge gas directly to the evaporator inlet (in some designs the coil is fed in reverse flow). The hot gas condenses inside the evaporator coil, releasing its heat of condensation directly to the frost accumulation. This is faster and more energy-efficient than electric defrost. Common in commercial walk-in coolers and display cases.
Key concept: Hot gas defrost: compressor discharge gas → evaporator (reversed). Condensation of hot gas melts frost. Advantages: fast, efficient, no external heater. Requires: additional solenoid valves, pressure relief to condenser. Common: commercial refrigeration, supermarket cases.
Q61easy
What type of compressor uses rotating scrolls to compress refrigerant, and what is its main advantage over reciprocating compressors?
  • A) Rotary vane compressor — advantage is very low discharge temperatures
  • B) Screw compressor — advantage is it can handle liquid refrigerant without damage
  • C) Centrifugal compressor — advantage is variable speed operation and no piston wear
  • D) Scroll compressor — advantage is fewer moving parts, quieter, higher efficiency
Correct answer: D
Scroll compressor: two interlocking scrolls — one fixed, one orbiting — compress refrigerant between them. Advantages over reciprocating: fewer moving parts (no pistons/connecting rods/valves), quieter, more efficient, smoother discharge pressure. Cannot tolerate liquid refrigerant easily (no valve to absorb shock — liquid can damage scroll tips). Very common in residential and light commercial HVAC. Failure mode: worn scroll tips, flooded start (liquid refrigerant migration during off cycle).
Key concept: Scroll compressor: orbiting scroll compresses against fixed scroll. Advantages: quiet, efficient, fewer moving parts. Disadvantage: limited liquid tolerance (no discharge valve). Common failure: flooded start (refrigerant migration into crankcase during off). Prevention: crankcase heater. Identify by smooth continuous sound vs reciprocating pulsing.
Q62easy
Why is a small flow of dry nitrogen kept moving through the tubing while joints are being brazed?
  • A) It cools the joint from the inside so the braze alloy sets more quickly
  • B) It carries the flux through the joint and spreads it around the fitting
  • C) It stops copper oxide scale forming inside the tube as it is heated
  • D) It proves the joint is leak free as soon as the alloy has solidified
Correct answer: C
Copper heated in air grows a black, flaky oxide on the inside of the tube, and a slow trickle of nitrogen displaces the air so that scale never forms. The scale does not stay where it was made. Refrigerant and oil wash it downstream, where it plugs the metering device screen, blinds the filter drier, scores bearings and ends up in the compressor — one of the classic reasons a system never runs right after a repair, and a fault that is invisible from outside the tube. The flow has to be small: enough to sweep the air out, not enough to pressurize the joint and blow the molten alloy out of it. Regulate it down, vent it at an open end so it can actually flow through, and keep it going until the joint has cooled.

Nitrogen carries away very little heat at that flow, and quenching a brazed joint is the last thing wanted anyway. Brazing copper to copper with a phosphorus-bearing alloy needs no flux inside the tube at all, and flux is never carried by a gas. Leak testing is a separate step, done after the joint has cooled, with nitrogen brought up to the specified test pressure. And never apply a flame to a system that still holds refrigerant: refrigerant meeting a flame or a hot surface breaks down into toxic products.
Key concept: Purge with a small, regulated flow of dry nitrogen while brazing, vented at an open end, and keep it flowing until the joint cools. Without it, hot copper in air forms black oxide scale inside the tube; the scale travels with the refrigerant and oil and plugs the metering device screen and the filter drier and damages the compressor. Purge flow is a trickle — enough to displace air, not enough to pressurize the joint. The steps are separate and in this order: purge while brazing, pressure test with nitrogen at the specified pressure, release, evacuate, charge. Never apply a flame to a system that still contains refrigerant.
Q63medium
A TXV (Thermostatic Expansion Valve) is "hunting" — suction pressure and superheat fluctuate rapidly. What is the most likely cause and correction?
  • A) The system is overcharged and the excess refrigerant is causing the valve to cycle
  • B) The condenser is dirty, causing high discharge pressure that forces the TXV to cycle
  • C) The TXV is undersized; replace with larger valve to allow more refrigerant flow
  • D) An erratic TXV signal — lost bulb charge, loose bulb contact, or valve mismatch
Correct answer: D
TXV hunting: an overly sensitive valve constantly over/under-compensates, causing oscillating suction pressure and superheat. Causes: sensing bulb has lost partial charge (erratic signal), sensing bulb not firmly clamped to suction line (reads air temperature instead), incorrect superheat setting (adjustment spring set too close to system operating point), refrigerant/TXV mismatch (wrong TXV for refrigerant), or refrigerant cross-charged. Correction: inspect and re-clamp bulb, check bulb insulation, verify refrigerant type matches TXV, adjust superheat setting if accessible.
Key concept: TXV hunting: oscillating suction pressure + superheat. Causes: loose/uncharged sensing bulb, bulb insulation missing, superheat set too tight, wrong TXV for refrigerant. Fix: clamp bulb tightly at 4 or 8 o'clock position on suction line, insulate bulb, verify refrigerant/TXV match. Persistent hunting: TXV may need replacement. Hunting vs flooding: hunting = rapid swings; flooding = continuously low superheat.
Q64medium
What is the purpose of a check valve in a refrigeration system, and where is it typically installed?
  • A) To limit maximum system pressure — installed at the compressor discharge as a pressure relief
  • B) To prevent backflow during the off-cycle — installed in heat pump discharge lines
  • C) To prevent oil from leaving the compressor — installed at the compressor suction port
  • D) To regulate refrigerant flow rate — installed in the liquid line as a primary metering device
Correct answer: B
Check valve: allows flow in one direction only — prevents refrigerant flowing backward during the off-cycle. Used in discharge lines on heat pumps and tandem/parallel compressor systems. On heat pumps: discharge line check valves direct refrigerant correctly when the reversing valve switches modes. On parallel/tandem compressor systems: individual discharge line check valves prevent the running compressor from pushing hot discharge gas into the stopped compressor. Also used in liquid lines of multi-evaporator systems to prevent migration.
Key concept: Check valve: one-direction flow only. Applications: heat pump discharge lines (direct flow during mode change), parallel compressors (prevent backflow into idle compressor), multi-evaporator liquid lines. Failure (stuck open): refrigerant backflow, flooding stopped compressor. Failure (stuck closed): restricted flow, high pressure drop, starved circuit.
Q65hard
A reciprocating compressor has a broken valve reed. How would this affect compressor performance and what test would confirm it?
  • A) Broken valve reed causes the compressor to short-cycle — confirmed by rapid on/off cycling
  • B) Broken valve reed raises head pressure — confirmed by discharge pressure higher than normal
  • C) Broken valve reed only affects oil pressure — confirmed by low oil pressure switch tripping
  • D) Broken reed allows gas to bypass compression — confirmed by a very low compression ratio
Correct answer: D
Broken compressor valve reed: gas bypasses the damaged valve instead of being compressed, severely reducing compression efficiency and capacity. A broken suction reed lets cylinder gas escape back into the suction line on the compression stroke — suction pressure runs high because the compressor can no longer pull it down, discharge pressure runs low, and mass flow drops. A broken discharge reed lets compressed gas leak back into the cylinder on the suction stroke and re-expand — again suction pressure rises and discharge pressure falls. Either way the two pressures converge, so a fault that pushes head pressure up is not this signature. Amp draw is below normal because the compressor is doing less work, while discharge temperature climbs because the same gas is compressed over and over. Confirm by comparing the measured compression ratio against the ratio the system's design evaporating and condensing conditions should produce — there is no single healthy number, since a low-temperature system normally runs a far higher ratio than a comfort-cooling system. A valved-out pump-down check (front-seat the suction service valve and watch whether the compressor pulls the low side down and holds it) separates a worn compressor from a system fault. A reed failure does not by itself cycle the compressor on and off, and it is not confined to the oil circuit — it shows in the refrigerant-side pressures long before an oil pressure switch reacts. Verify with valve plate inspection before condemning the compressor.
Key concept: Broken compressor valve reed: bypasses compression. Suction reed broken: high suction pressure, low discharge pressure, reduced mass flow. Discharge reed broken: compressed gas re-expands into the cylinder, same convergence. Both: pressures converge, compression ratio far below what the design conditions call for, reduced capacity, low amp draw, hot discharge line. Diagnosis: converging pressures + low amp draw, confirmed by a valved-out pump-down test. Repair: valve plate replacement.
Q66hard
A commercial refrigeration system uses a compressor with an economizer port. What is the purpose of the economizer circuit connected to that port?
  • A) To recover condenser heat for domestic hot water heating
  • B) To reduce electricity consumption by cycling the compressor off during low-load periods
  • C) To subcool liquid refrigerant using refrigerant expanded at an intermediate pressure stage
  • D) To use outdoor air for cooling when ambient temperature is below setpoint, bypassing the refrigerant circuit
Correct answer: C
Refrigerant economizer: improves system efficiency and capacity by subcooling liquid using a flash tank or heat exchanger at intermediate pressure. A portion of liquid refrigerant is expanded to an intermediate pressure in the economizer. This cold refrigerant subcools the main liquid line, reducing flash losses at the metering device and increasing refrigerating effect per kilogram circulated. The intermediate-pressure flash gas is injected into the compressor mid-stage through the economizer port (requires a two-stage or economizer-capable compressor). Because flash losses grow as the pressure ratio grows, the gain is largest on low-temperature duty and in high ambient conditions. An air-side economizer, which brings in outdoor air when it is cool enough to carry the load, is a separate device on the air side and does nothing to the refrigerant circuit. Condenser heat reclaim for domestic hot water and simply cycling the compressor off at low load are also separate strategies, not the function of the economizer port. Common in commercial refrigeration and VRF systems.
Key concept: Refrigerant economizer: subcools liquid refrigerant using flash tank or heat exchanger at intermediate pressure. Flash gas injected to compressor mid-stage port. Benefit: more subcooling = less flash at metering device = more refrigerating effect per kg. Gain grows with pressure ratio, so it is largest on low-temperature and high-ambient duty. Requires economizer-capable compressor (port). VRF systems: standard feature. Not to be confused with an air-side economizer, which is an outdoor-air free-cooling damper arrangement.
Q67medium
What is the function of a hot gas bypass valve in a refrigeration system?
  • A) To bypass hot discharge gas from the condenser directly to the suction line to reduce head pressure during high-load operation
  • B) To bypass refrigerant around the metering device during the defrost cycle
  • C) To limit maximum discharge temperature by bypassing hot gas to the oil cooler
  • D) To inject hot discharge gas into the suction side to maintain minimum compressor load
Correct answer: D
Hot gas bypass: injects discharge gas into the suction line or evaporator inlet to maintain minimum compressor load at low demand, preventing short cycling and low suction pressure. When refrigeration load decreases significantly (e.g., walk-in cooler at night), suction pressure drops, risking low-pressure cutout and excessive short cycling. The hot gas bypass valve opens to inject warm discharge gas, artificially loading the compressor and stabilizing suction pressure. This is an efficiency penalty (wasted compression work) — used only when modulating capacity is not available.
Key concept: Hot gas bypass: injects discharge gas to suction to prevent low suction pressure/short cycling at low load. Maintained: suction pressure above low-pressure cutout. Penalty: wastes compressor work (gas compressed but does no useful cooling). Modern alternative: variable speed compressors. Used in: process cooling, commercial refrigeration with widely varying loads.
Q68hard
An oil separator is installed in the discharge line of a refrigeration system. What is its purpose and why is this critical for system reliability?
  • A) It dampens discharge gas pulsation to reduce compressor noise and vibration
  • B) It filters solid particles from the oil before it enters the compressor
  • C) It separates water contamination from the oil to prevent acid formation
  • D) It separates oil from the discharge gas and returns it to the compressor
Correct answer: D
Oil separator: catches compressor oil in the discharge stream and returns it to the compressor crankcase — preventing oil starvation and oil accumulation in the heat exchangers. Some oil inevitably leaves the compressor with discharge gas. Without separation, oil accumulates in the condenser and evaporator, reducing heat transfer efficiency and risking compressor oil starvation. The separator uses baffles, mesh, or centrifugal force to drop oil out of the gas stream. A float valve or capillary tube returns oil to the crankcase. Critical for: low-temperature systems (oil moves poorly), long line sets, and systems with multiple evaporators. A discharge muffler sits in the same part of the line but only smooths the pulsation from the compressor and separates nothing; solid particles are caught by the suction strainer or the liquid line filter drier; moisture is taken out by the desiccant in the filter drier, not by the separator.
Key concept: Oil separator: removes oil from discharge gas before condenser. Returns oil to compressor (float valve/capillary). Prevents: oil accumulation in HX (poor heat transfer), compressor oil starvation. Critical: low-temp systems (viscous oil moves slowly), long piping, multiple evaporators. Location: discharge line immediately after compressor (hottest point, oil droplets still warm and mobile).
Q69easy
What type of oil is required for systems using HFC refrigerants (such as R-134a, R-404A, R-410A)?
  • A) POE (Polyolester) oil — HFCs are not miscible with mineral oil
  • B) Mineral oil — the same oil used with R-12 and R-22 systems
  • C) PAG (Polyalkylene Glycol) oil — this is standard for all refrigeration applications
  • D) Alkylbenzene oil — this is the universal oil compatible with all refrigerant types
Correct answer: A
HFC refrigerants require synthetic POE (polyolester) oil for proper lubrication and oil return — mineral oil is not miscible and will cause oil logging and lubrication failure. R-12 and R-22 (CFC/HCFC) systems use mineral oil or alkylbenzene oil. HFCs (R-134a, R-404A, R-410A, R-407C) require POE oil, which mixes with HFCs so the oil is carried around the circuit and returned to the compressor. Mixing mineral oil with HFCs causes the oil to separate out and pool in the evaporator, starving the compressor. POE oil is strongly hygroscopic — it takes up atmospheric moisture quickly and holds it, so containers stay sealed and open time is kept to a minimum.
Key concept: Refrigerant oil compatibility: R-12 = mineral oil or alkylbenzene. R-22 = mineral oil, alkylbenzene, or POE. HFCs (R-134a, R-404A, R-410A, R-407C) = POE oil required. HFOs (R-1234yf, R-1234ze) = POE oil. CO₂ (R-744) = PAG or special POE. POE properties: hygroscopic, and moisture in POE hydrolyzes to form acid, which evacuation will not reliably remove once absorbed. Handling POE oil: buy the smallest sensible container, open it only at the moment of use, never use oil from a container that has been opened before, never pour oil back into the container, and fit a fresh liquid line drier whenever the circuit has been opened. Wrong oil in a system means a flush.
Q70hard
A scroll compressor is producing a loud metallic grinding noise immediately on startup that clears after a few seconds. Oil level in the sight glass is normal. What is the MOST likely cause?
  • A) The compressor motor windings are shorting, causing vibration and noise on startup
  • B) Liquid refrigerant migrated to the compressor during the off cycle — slugging on startup
  • C) The compressor discharge valve is worn, allowing high-pressure gas to blow back
  • D) The compressor is worn out — metallic noise on startup always indicates imminent failure
Correct answer: B
Liquid refrigerant migration to compressor during off cycle causes liquid slugging on startup — grinding/rattling noise that clears as liquid is pumped out. The migrated liquid is often an oil-refrigerant mixture in the crankcase. Scroll compressors are less tolerant of liquid than reciprocating compressors — the scrolls momentarily separate but can still be damaged. Causes: low ambient temperature with refrigerant migrating to coldest point (compressor), crankcase heater failed/not installed, refrigerant overcharge. Prevention: crankcase heater, pump-down cycle on shutdown, check valve in suction line.
Key concept: Scroll compressor liquid slugging: migrated refrigerant in crankcase → liquid pumping on startup → scrolls separate (scroll compliance mechanism allows this but causes wear). Signs: noise on startup clearing after a few seconds. Prevention: 1) Crankcase heater (always on during off cycle). 2) Pump-down cycle: refrigerant pumped to liquid line before shutdown — prevents migration. 3) Check valve in suction line prevents gravity migration. Flood-back during operation: TXV overfeeding (low superheat). Migration during off cycle: pressure equalization, gravity flow.
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Controls & Electrical 22 questions
Q71easy
An oil pressure safety control protects a compressor that has a forced-feed oil pump. What does the control actually act on?
  • A) Oil pump outlet pressure measured against atmosphere
  • B) Crankcase pressure measured against discharge pressure
  • C) Oil temperature converted to an equivalent pressure
  • D) Oil pump outlet pressure minus crankcase pressure
Correct answer: D
Net oil pressure is the difference the pump develops above the crankcase it is drawing from. The crankcase already sits at suction pressure, so a gauge on the pump outlet reads that suction pressure plus whatever the pump has added. Only the added part does the work of pushing oil through the bearings, so an oil pressure safety control connects one side to the pump outlet and the other to the crankcase and responds to the difference between them. A control watching pump outlet pressure alone would show a comfortable number on a system running high suction pressure while the bearings were being starved. These controls also carry a time delay so the pump can build pressure during start-up, and they lock out rather than cycle, because a compressor that has lost oil pressure must not be restarted until the reason is found.
Key concept: Net oil pressure = oil pump outlet pressure minus crankcase (suction) pressure, and that difference is what feeds the bearings. Oil pressure safety controls are differential devices with a start-up time delay and a manual reset lockout. A lockout is an instruction to investigate: low oil level, oil logged in the evaporator, oil diluted by off-cycle migration or flood-back, a worn pump, or a plugged oil strainer. Resetting without finding the cause spends the bearings.
Q72easy
A low-pressure control (LPC) is set to cut out at 20 PSI and cut in at 45 PSI on an R-22 system. The LPC trips repeatedly. The MOST likely cause is:
  • A) Compressor valves leaking
  • B) Thermostat setting too cold
  • C) Low charge causing suction pressure to fall
  • D) Condenser fan failure causing high head pressure
Correct answer: C
LPC tripping = suction pressure falling below cut-out. Low refrigerant charge reduces suction pressure below the cut-out setpoint. Restricted liquid line, dirty evaporator coil, or low evaporator load can also cause low suction. The LPC protects the system from operating at pressures where evaporator freeze-up or compressor damage could occur.
Key concept: LPC trips: suction pressure too low. Check: refrigerant charge (leak?), evaporator airflow/coil condition, liquid line restriction. LPC protects evaporator from freeze-up and compressor from liquid slugging at very low pressures.
Q73medium
A high-pressure control (HPC) trips on an air-cooled condensing unit on a hot day. After resetting, it trips again within minutes. The MOST likely cause is:
  • A) TXV flooding the evaporator
  • B) Low refrigerant charge
  • C) Fouled condenser coil or failed fan
  • D) Compressor internal valve leaking
Correct answer: C
HPC tripping repeatedly = condenser cannot reject heat fast enough. On hot days, condenser performance is already marginal. A fouled coil or failed condenser fan limits heat rejection further — discharge pressure climbs until HPC trips. After cool-down, it briefly works then trips again. Check: condenser coil cleanliness, fan operation, fan blade pitch, airflow obstructions.
Key concept: HPC tripping: head pressure too high. Summer + HPC trips = condenser problem (dirty coil, fan failure). Also check: refrigerant overcharge, non-condensables. Fix cause — do NOT bypass the HPC.
Q74medium
An electronic expansion valve (EEV or EXV) offers advantages over a TXV because:
  • A) It meters flow from superheat computed by its controller
  • B) It requires no electrical power and operates purely on refrigerant pressure
  • C) It is completely self-contained and never needs calibration
  • D) It sets a fixed opening at start-up and needs no superheat feedback
Correct answer: A
EEV: electronic precision control based on multiple sensor inputs. The controller reads suction pressure from a transducer and suction line temperature from a sensor, calculates superheat from the two, and drives a stepper motor to reposition the valve — much faster response and a far wider control range than a mechanical TXV, which is why EEVs suit inverter-driven and VRF equipment. The other answers describe things an EEV is not. It is not a pressure-operated valve: without control power and a working controller it does not meter at all. It is not self-contained either — the valve is only one part of a package that includes the controller and its sensors, and the superheat target is a programmed setting that can be checked and adjusted. And it does not park at a fixed opening: superheat feedback is recalculated continuously, which is precisely the advantage being asked about.
Key concept: EEV advantages: faster response, wider operating range, controlled by ECU using multiple inputs, enables variable-capacity systems. Requires electronic controller + suction temperature sensor + suction pressure transducer.
Q75hard
A walk-in freezer evaporator on electric defrost initiates every 6 hours and terminates either on its termination thermostat, set for this coil at 10°C (50°F), or on a 30-minute time limit. Every cycle runs the full 30 minutes and ends on the timer, yet when the technician opens the box at the end of a cycle the coil is completely clear of frost and the drain pan is hot. This indicates:
  • A) The defrost heaters are undersized for the coil and its load
  • B) Refrigerant undercharge is causing excess frost accumulation
  • C) The termination thermostat is faulty or positioned incorrectly
  • D) Normal operation — defrost cycles run a fixed length regardless of need
Correct answer: C
A coil that comes out of defrost completely clear has had enough heat; if the cycle still ran to its time limit, the control never saw the coil warm up. Temperature termination is how an electric defrost is meant to end - once the ice is gone the coil metal climbs quickly past the termination setting and the cycle stops, which saves energy and stops the box temperature climbing any further. The 30-minute limit is a fail-safe, not the intended terminator. Here the ice is gone and the drain pan is hot, so heat input and frost load are not the problem; what has failed is the device that is supposed to notice. Either the termination thermostat has failed open or drifted out of calibration, or it is clamped where it never sees warm metal - on a return bend that stays cold, or away from the heater path. Test it for continuity as its temperature rises and confirm it is mounted where the equipment's installation instructions place it. Heaters that were undersized for the coil and its load would leave ice still on the coil when the timer ended, which is exactly what is not found here. An undercharge is a refrigeration-side fault and has no bearing on whether a defrost cycle terminates. And a defrost is not supposed to run a fixed length regardless of need - preventing that is precisely why temperature termination exists.
Key concept: Defrost termination: ending on temperature means the coil cleared and the control saw it; ending on the timer is the fail-safe. Read the two facts together before deciding. Coil still frosted when the timer ends = not enough defrost heat for the frost load, or too much frost between cycles. Coil clear and hot but the timer still ends the cycle = the termination thermostat has failed or is mounted where it cannot see the warm coil.
Q76easy
An EPR (Evaporator Pressure Regulator) valve is installed in the suction line of a multi-evaporator system. Its function is to:
  • A) Regulate head pressure at the condenser outlet
  • B) Maintain a minimum evaporator pressure setpoint
  • C) Limit maximum evaporator pressure to prevent overloading the compressor
  • D) Balance refrigerant flow between multiple evaporators
Correct answer: B
EPR valve: sets minimum evaporator pressure (warmer setpoint), preventing the evaporator from getting too cold. In multi-temperature systems, different evaporators need different temperatures. The EPR valve limits how cold a warmer evaporator can get by maintaining minimum suction pressure above the lower-temperature coil setpoint. Example: produce case at 35°F uses an EPR; freezer evaporator at -10°F does not.
Key concept: EPR valve: maintains MINIMUM evaporator pressure (prevents over-cooling). Used on medium-temperature evaporators in multi-temperature systems. Placed in suction line at that evaporator outlet.
Q77easy
What is the function of a high-pressure cutout switch in a refrigeration/air conditioning system?
  • A) To limit compressor speed when head pressure is elevated
  • B) To bypass the TXV when discharge pressure is too high
  • C) To open the relief valve on the refrigerant cylinder when pressure exceeds maximum
  • D) To shut down the compressor when discharge pressure exceeds a safe limit
Correct answer: D
High-pressure cutout: safety device that shuts down compressor at excessive head pressure. High head pressure can be caused by: dirty/blocked condenser, condenser fan failure, refrigerant overcharge, non-condensables in the system, or high ambient temperature. If head pressure reaches the cutout setpoint (typically 590–650 PSI for R-410A systems), the compressor is de-energized — protecting the compressor, condenser, and refrigerant circuit from over-pressure damage. The manual reset type requires a technician reset, preventing restart until the cause is investigated.
Key concept: High-pressure cutout: protects from over-pressure. Trips at setpoint (e.g., 590–650 PSI for R-410A). Manual reset = technician must find cause before restart. Auto reset = restarts when pressure drops. Causes of high head: dirty condenser, fan failure, overcharge, non-condensables, high ambient.
Q78medium
A crankcase pressure regulator (CPR, or holdback valve) is fitted in the suction line of a low-temperature system. What does it do?
  • A) It holds a minimum evaporator pressure so the coil cannot run too cold
  • B) It holds head pressure up in cold weather so the metering device can feed
  • C) It keeps refrigerant from flowing back to the evaporator during the off cycle
  • D) It limits how high suction pressure may rise, protecting the motor
Correct answer: D
A crankcase pressure regulator throttles the suction line so that pressure at the compressor cannot climb above the valve's setting. The problem it solves appears on low-temperature equipment during a pull-down, or straight after a defrost, when the box is warm and the evaporator is producing far more gas, at far greater density, than the compressor was sized for. Denser suction gas means more mass through the machine, more work done, and motor current well past the compressor's rating. The valve sits in the suction line between evaporator and compressor, senses the pressure on its outlet — the compressor side — and closes down as that pressure rises, holding the compressor at a load it can carry. As the box pulls down the valve opens fully and stops interfering.

Do not confuse it with the valve at the other end of the line. An evaporator pressure regulator sits at an evaporator outlet and holds a MINIMUM pressure, so that a warmer coil in a multi-temperature system cannot run colder than its product needs. Holding head pressure up in cold weather is a condenser-side job, done by fan control or a flooding valve. Preventing off-cycle backflow is what a check valve or a pump-down cycle does.
Key concept: Crankcase pressure regulator (CPR, holdback valve): in the suction line, senses its own OUTLET pressure, and throttles so suction pressure at the compressor cannot exceed a set maximum. It protects the motor from overload during a warm pull-down or after a defrost, when dense suction gas would push current past the compressor's rating, and it opens fully once the box pulls down. The evaporator pressure regulator is the opposite device at the opposite end: at an evaporator outlet, holding a MINIMUM pressure so a warmer coil does not over-cool. A CPR set too low leaves the box unable to pull down with suction pressure pinned; stuck closed, it starves the compressor.
Q79hard
What is an economizer mode in a commercial HVAC system, and under what conditions does it activate?
  • A) An economizer reduces compressor speed during periods of low cooling demand to save energy
  • B) An economizer bypasses the filter section when static pressure is too high to reduce fan motor load
  • C) An economizer is a heat recovery ventilator that pre-conditions incoming air using exhaust air heat
  • D) An economizer uses outdoor air directly for cooling when outdoor conditions are suitable
Correct answer: D
Economizer: free cooling using outdoor air when conditions allow. An air-side economizer modulates the outdoor air, return and relief dampers so that outdoor air itself carries part or all of the cooling load and the mechanical cooling is unloaded or shut off. The changeover decision compares the outdoor air against the air returning from the space, either on dry-bulb temperature or, where humidity matters, on enthalpy, and against a high-limit setting: outdoor air is only worth bringing in while it is cooler, or lower in enthalpy, than the return air. That is why the savings show up in mild spring and autumn weather and on cool nights. In Canada the requirement comes from the National Energy Code of Canada for Buildings (NECB), Article 5.2.2.7. Cooling with Outdoor Air: a system that incorporates mechanical cooling and has an air-handling capacity of more than 1 500 L/s, or a cooling capacity of more than 20 kW, must be designed to use outdoor air to reduce mechanical cooling energy — by direct use of outdoor air (air economizer, Article 5.2.2.8.) or indirectly (water economizer, Article 5.2.2.9.) — with systems serving only dwelling units or hotel and motel rooms excepted. ASHRAE 90.1 is a United States standard and has no force of its own in Canada; it binds only where a province adopts it as a compliance path, as Ontario's Building Code Supplementary Standard SB-10 has done in offering ANSI/ASHRAE/IES 90.1-2013 with SB-10's own amendments as one of three paths, the NECB path being another. Work to the edition your provincial code adopts.

Note the name collision. The device described here sits on the air side: a damper arrangement that brings outdoor air into the building. A refrigerant economizer circuit is a different thing entirely — an intermediate-pressure circuit inside the refrigeration system that subcools the liquid and injects flash gas into a compressor economizer port.
Key concept: Economizer (air side): free cooling with outdoor air when outdoor conditions are suitable. Changeover is judged by comparing outdoor air with return air — dry-bulb, or enthalpy where humidity matters — against a high-limit setting, not against the space setpoint. Fully open = 100% outdoor air (no mechanical cooling). Partially open = mixed. Needs outdoor air, return and relief dampers with actuators, a sensor and controls. Canadian requirement: NECB Article 5.2.2.7. — a system with mechanical cooling and an air-handling capacity of more than 1 500 L/s, or a cooling capacity of more than 20 kW, must be designed to use outdoor air to reduce mechanical cooling energy (air economizer per Article 5.2.2.8., water economizer per Article 5.2.2.9.); systems serving only dwelling units or hotel and motel rooms are excepted. ASHRAE 90.1 applies here only through a provincial compliance path such as Ontario SB-10. Do not confuse this with a refrigerant economizer circuit, which subcools liquid at an intermediate pressure inside the refrigeration system and feeds flash gas to a compressor economizer port.
Q80medium
A commercial refrigeration system has a suction pressure transducer fail — it reads 0 PSI at all times. How will this affect system operation?
  • A) The condenser fan will run continuously at full speed
  • B) The controller sees a false low-pressure signal, likely triggering a fault or shutdown
  • C) The TXV will close completely since it uses the suction pressure signal for control
  • D) The system will operate normally — suction pressure is not used for control
Correct answer: B
Suction pressure transducer failed to 0 PSI: controller reads severe low pressure — likely shuts down or alarms. Modern refrigeration controllers use suction pressure for system protection (low pressure cutout), compressor management, and in some systems for EEV control. A transducer stuck at 0 PSI simulates a severe low-pressure or pump-down condition — the controller reacts as if the system is in a low-charge or restricted condition. It will typically trigger a fault code and shut down the compressor to "protect" from a non-existent problem.
Key concept: Suction pressure transducer failure: controller reacts to false reading. Stuck 0 PSI = false low pressure alarm/shutdown. Stuck high = controller thinks suction is OK when it's not (dangerous). Test transducer with gauge manifold: compare actual pressure to transducer signal. Replace faulty transducer.
Q81easy
What is the purpose of a low-pressure safety control in a refrigeration system, and what condition does it protect against?
  • A) It protects the compressor from damage caused by excessively high discharge pressure
  • B) It controls the minimum refrigerant charge by measuring liquid line pressure
  • C) It shuts down the compressor when suction pressure drops below a set point
  • D) It limits the maximum operating pressure in the liquid line
Correct answer: C
Low-pressure control: stops compressor when suction pressure drops below setpoint. Protects against: 1) Low refrigerant charge (leak), 2) Loss of evaporator load (frozen/iced evaporator, closed damper), 3) Blocked metering device. Low suction pressure: compressor pumps vapor at very low density → reduced mass flow → overheating → possible valve damage. It also keeps the low side out of a vacuum: below atmospheric pressure, air and moisture are drawn in through any leak or loose joint, and that moisture and air lead to acid and sludge. Protecting against excessive discharge pressure is the job of the high-pressure control, and no pressure safety switch measures the refrigerant charge or limits liquid line pressure. Auto-reset allows restart; manual-reset requires technician intervention.
Key concept: Low-pressure control: cuts compressor at low suction pressure. Protects: against low charge, evaporator icing, blocked TXV. Manual reset type: technician must identify cause before restart. Auto reset: restarts automatically (may mask problem). Set point: per manufacturer specification for the refrigerant and the application — below normal running suction pressure, but high enough that the low side is never pulled into a vacuum. Only low-temperature systems are set anywhere near atmospheric pressure. Always diagnose cause of low-pressure trip before resetting.
Q82easy
What is the function of a defrost timer in a commercial refrigeration system?
  • A) To measure the time the compressor has been running and schedule oil changes
  • B) To initiate and terminate timed defrost cycles that melt evaporator frost
  • C) To prevent the system from running during the hottest part of the day to reduce energy costs
  • D) To control the temperature setpoint during different times of the day
Correct answer: B
Defrost timer: initiates defrost at scheduled intervals to remove frost from evaporator coils, restoring airflow and heat transfer efficiency. Frost buildup on evaporator coils insulates the surface and restricts airflow, reducing refrigeration capacity. Defrost methods: electric resistance heaters, hot gas defrost, or reverse cycle (heat pump). The timer starts defrost at set times (usually early morning when load is low). Defrost terminates on temperature or on time. Temperature termination is the better of the two: a termination thermostat or sensor on the coil ends the cycle once the coil has climbed clear of freezing to its set termination temperature, which proves the ice is gone and stops the heaters before they needlessly warm the box. The termination setting is chosen for the application and the equipment, so it is read off the control or the equipment documentation rather than assumed. Time termination is only a backstop. Adaptive/demand defrost systems use sensors to run defrost only when needed.
Key concept: Defrost timer: schedules evaporator defrost. Why: frost insulates coil, blocks airflow → capacity loss. Defrost terminates: temperature sensor (preferred, prevents over-defrost) or timer. Methods: electric heaters, hot gas, reverse cycle. Commercial: usually 2-4 defrosts/day. Adaptive defrost (modern): runs only when frost detected, saves energy.
Q83medium
A compressor control circuit includes a timer that blocks any restart for several minutes after the compressor stops. What problem is that delay preventing?
  • A) Oil draining out of the crankcase while the compressor stands still
  • B) Frost forming on the evaporator during the short off period between cycles
  • C) The contactor coil overheating from being switched on and off too often
  • D) A restart before pressures equalize, when the motor cannot start
Correct answer: D
The delay exists so the high side and the low side have time to equalize before the motor is asked to turn again. When a compressor stops, discharge pressure is still standing on top of the pistons or the scrolls. The motor develops only modest starting torque, and if it is switched back on before that pressure has bled off through the metering device it stalls at locked rotor, draws locked-rotor current and trips its overload — and does it again on the next attempt, until something is damaged. A fixed orifice equalizes in a couple of minutes; a thermostatic expansion valve holds pressure much longer, which is why those systems often carry a hard start kit as well. The timer also caps the number of starts per hour, and starts are where motor heating, contact arcing and mechanical wear are concentrated.

What the timer does not do is remove the reason the machine is cycling so quickly. Short cycling is itself a symptom: a control differential set too tight, a low charge cycling the low-pressure control, poor heat rejection cycling the high-pressure control, or equipment oversized for its load. As for the alternatives — oil does not drain out of a crankcase during an off cycle; the opposite happens, as refrigerant migrates into it. A few minutes without cooling does not frost a coil. And while contactor contacts do suffer from frequent starts, it is the contacts rather than the coil that pay, and protecting them is not what this timer is for.
Key concept: Anti-short-cycle (time delay) control: blocks a restart for a set interval, typically a few minutes, after the compressor stops. Reason: discharge pressure has to bleed back through the metering device before the motor can develop enough torque to start; restarting against an unequalized system means locked rotor, locked-rotor current and overload trips. A fixed orifice equalizes quickly, a TXV does not, so those systems also use a hard start kit. The timer additionally caps starts per hour, which is where motor heating and contactor arcing accumulate. Treat the timer as protection, not as a repair — find why the machine is cycling: differential set too tight, low charge tripping the low-pressure control, poor heat rejection tripping the high-pressure control, or oversized equipment.
Q84medium
A refrigeration system compressor contactor has pitted, burned contacts. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
  • A) Repeated arcing at the contacts caused by compressor inrush or short cycling
  • B) The contactor coil voltage is too high, causing excessive current through the contacts
  • C) Heating of the closed contact faces by the compressor's normal running current
  • D) The contactor is rated too large for the duty, and oversized contacts pit sooner
Correct answer: A
Pitted, burned contacts are arc erosion: the damage is done in the instants when the contacts make and break under load, and on a compressor circuit the routine high-energy event is the starting inrush. A compressor motor draws many times its running current at the moment it starts, before the rotor is up to speed. Every make against that current, every bounce of the contacts as they close, and every break under load draws an arc across the contact faces, and each arc carries a little metal away, so the faces roughen, pit and discolour. Short cycling multiplies the number of those arcs, which is why a contactor that keeps burning up is usually telling you the machine is starting far too often. Fitting another contactor without finding out why it is cycling, whether that is a control differential set too tight, a low charge cycling the low-pressure control, poor heat rejection cycling the high-pressure control, or equipment oversized for its load, only buys time.

Voltage belongs on the check list, and it is a real second cause rather than a distraction. A coil that cannot pull the armature fully in, because the control voltage is low, lets the contactor chatter, and a chattering contactor makes and breaks load current over and over and burns its contacts doing it. On packaged equipment the control transformer is fed from the line, so a low supply voltage lowers the coil voltage with it; measure both at the moment of a start, not with the machine idle. But the question asks for the most likely cause, and inrush arcing is present on every start of every compressor, while a chattering coil is a specific fault that also announces itself with noise. The three alternatives each rest on a misunderstanding. Steady running current in closed contacts does not pit them: a clean, fully seated contact carrying current within its rating runs cool, and the contact that overheats while closed is one that has already been pitted and now has a high-resistance face, so heating is a consequence of the damage rather than its cause. Coil voltage sits in its own circuit, isolated from the load contacts, so raising it overheats or burns the coil and does not increase the current the contacts carry. And a contactor with more contact mass than the duty demands interrupts the inrush more easily, so oversizing reduces contact erosion rather than causing it.

Failure signatures worth knowing: welded contacts mean the compressor will not shut off, open contacts mean no start, and high-resistance contacts show up as voltage drop across a closed pole under load and local overheating.
Key concept: Contactor contact pitting and burning is arc erosion at make and break. Compressor inrush, many times the running current for the moment the motor starts, makes every start a high-energy arc, and short cycling multiplies the starts, so short cycling is the usual cause. Treat a repeatedly burned contactor as a short-cycling symptom and find the reason: control differential too tight, low charge cycling the low-pressure control, poor heat rejection cycling the high-pressure control, equipment oversized for the load. Also measure control voltage and line voltage during a start, because a coil that cannot seat lets the contactor chatter and burn its contacts, and on packaged equipment low line voltage takes the coil voltage down with it. Closed contacts carrying steady current within their rating run cool; a closed contact that overheats has already been pitted, so heating is the result of the damage and not its cause. The coil circuit is separate from the load contacts, so coil overvoltage burns the coil, not the contacts. An oversized contactor erodes less, not more. Failure signatures: welded contacts, compressor will not shut off; open contacts, no start; high-resistance contacts, voltage drop across a closed pole under load and overheating.
Q85hard
A commercial refrigeration controller shows a sensor fault for the discharge temperature thermistor. How do thermistor-based sensors work and how would a technician diagnose this fault?
  • A) NTC thermistors drop resistance as temperature rises; compare measured resistance to the R-T table
  • B) Thermistors only function within 0–100°C range; discharge temperature measurement requires a different sensor type
  • C) Thermistors are current-output devices calibrated in milliamps; replace if output is above or below normal range
  • D) Thermistors are voltage-output devices; diagnose by measuring AC voltage output at the sensor terminals
Correct answer: A
NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) thermistor: resistance decreases as temperature increases. Common in HVAC/R for temperature sensing. Diagnosis: 1) Disconnect sensor from controller. 2) Measure resistance with ohmmeter at known temperature (e.g., room temp ~25°C). 3) Compare to manufacturer resistance-temperature table (e.g., 10kΩ at 25°C is common). 4) Check for open circuit (infinite resistance = failed sensor or broken wire) or short circuit (near-zero resistance = failed sensor or shorted wiring). Also check connector for corrosion.
Key concept: NTC thermistor: resistance drops as temperature rises. Diagnose: measure resistance at known temp, compare to R-T table. Open = infinity Ω (broken wire/sensor). Short = near 0 Ω. Correct resistance but wrong reading: check reference resistor in controller circuit. NTC common values: 10kΩ at 25°C. PTC (positive) = resistance increases with temp — less common in refrigeration.
Q86hard
A variable frequency drive (VFD) is used to control a condenser fan motor. What does the VFD do, and what is a common installation mistake that can damage the motor?
  • A) The VFD varies frequency and voltage to control speed; common mistake is a non-VFD-rated motor or long cable runs
  • B) The VFD increases motor voltage proportionally with load; common mistake is using undersized wiring
  • C) The VFD converts AC to DC for brushless motor operation; common mistake is forgetting to install a capacitor bank
  • D) The VFD steps up voltage for high-efficiency operation; common mistake is running at too low a frequency
Correct answer: A
VFD (Variable Frequency Drive): adjusts motor speed by varying AC frequency and voltage proportionally (V/Hz control). In HVAC/R: used for condenser fans (high-head pressure control), evaporator fans, and compressors. Installation mistake: using a standard induction motor (not VFD-rated) with long cable runs. PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) output creates voltage spikes. Long cables amplify these spikes (voltage reflection/standing wave effect), which can break down motor winding insulation. Fix: use inverter-duty motors (enhanced insulation), add output reactor or dV/dt filter.
Key concept: VFD: varies speed by varying frequency (and voltage proportionally). Benefits: energy savings, soft start, precise control. Common mistakes: standard motor (not inverter-duty) on long cable run = reflected voltage spikes = winding insulation failure. Fix: inverter-duty motor (Class F insulation, shaft grounding), output reactor, cable length limit. Also: VFD harmonic distortion on power supply — input line reactor.
Q87medium
What is the purpose of a phase monitor relay in a three-phase refrigeration system?
  • A) To protect three-phase motors from phase loss, phase reversal, and phase imbalance
  • B) To convert single-phase power to three-phase for use with commercial compressors
  • C) To balance the electrical load across three phases to reduce energy consumption
  • D) To monitor refrigerant phase changes and shut down the system if the refrigerant is undercharged
Correct answer: A
A phase monitor relay watches the three-phase supply and drops the control circuit when that supply is not fit to run a motor: a lost phase, two phases swapped, or phases too far out of balance. Phase loss is the worst of the three. A three-phase motor needs all three phases to make a rotating field, so with one phase open it cannot start from rest at all: it sits and hums and draws locked-rotor current through the two live phases. If it was already running when the phase opened it keeps turning on a pulsating single-phase field at greatly reduced capability, while current in the two remaining phases climbs and the windings heat quickly. Single-phasing is the leading cause of burnout on three-phase motors.

Phase reversal turns the motor backwards. Refrigerant flow does not reverse, it stops. A scroll compressor compresses in one direction only, so a scroll run backwards is very loud, delivers no cooling and is damaged within minutes; a screw compressor is direction-sensitive in the same way. A reciprocating compressor is far less sensitive, because its pistons reciprocate whichever way the crankshaft turns, but anything else fed from the same supply, condenser fans and pumps included, also runs backwards and loses its output. Phase imbalance is the quiet one: unequal phase voltages produce a considerably larger imbalance in the currents, and that extra current shows up as winding heat and shortened motor life.

The relay is a protective device, not a power supply. It cannot make a third phase out of a single-phase service, it does not redistribute load between the phases to save energy, and it senses nothing on the refrigerant side, so it has no way to know whether a system is undercharged. Phase protection is commonly specified on three-phase commercial equipment, and manufacturers normally call for it on direction-sensitive scroll and screw compressors precisely because reversed rotation ruins them. Confirm rotation after any supply work upstream of the unit.
Key concept: Phase monitor relay: watches the three-phase supply and de-energizes the control circuit on phase loss, phase reversal or phase imbalance. Phase loss, or single-phasing: the motor cannot start from rest, it hums and draws locked-rotor current through the two live phases; a motor already running keeps turning at greatly reduced capability with climbing current and fast winding heating. Leading cause of three-phase burnout. Phase reversal: the motor turns backwards, so the compressor stops pumping rather than pumping in reverse. A scroll or screw compresses in one direction only, and a reversed scroll is very loud, gives no cooling and is damaged within minutes; a reciprocating compressor is far less direction-sensitive because the pistons reciprocate either way, but fans and pumps on the same supply also reverse. Confirm rotation after any supply work upstream of the unit. Phase imbalance: a small voltage imbalance produces a much larger current imbalance and extra winding heat. What it is not: it cannot create a phase, it does not balance load to save energy, and it reads nothing on the refrigerant side. Commonly specified on three-phase commercial equipment, and normally called for on scroll and screw compressors.
Q88hard
A commercial refrigeration system uses a floating head pressure control strategy. What does this mean and what is its benefit?
  • A) Head pressure fluctuates freely without controls, reducing wear on condenser fan motors
  • B) The head pressure is allowed to rise and fall with refrigerant charge level, reducing the need for precise charging
  • C) The discharge pressure is fixed at the minimum possible setpoint regardless of ambient temperature
  • D) Condenser fans are controlled to let head pressure drop as low as ambient allows
Correct answer: D
Floating head pressure: condenser fan speed or staging is controlled to allow condensing pressure to drop to the lowest stable level based on ambient conditions — improving system efficiency. Traditional systems maintain high fixed head pressure year-round. Floating head control reduces fans (or varies their speed) to allow the head pressure to drop as ambient drops in winter, reducing compressor work (lower pressure ratio = less energy per unit of refrigeration). The float is not unlimited, though: every floating head strategy is given a floor, because the metering device still has to be left with enough pressure difference across it to feed the evaporator, and refrigerant velocity has to stay high enough to carry oil back. The floor is worked out from the system design data for that refrigerant and evaporator temperature, and below it the same head pressure control described elsewhere in this bank takes over and holds condensing pressure up.
Key concept: Floating head pressure: let condensing pressure drop with ambient instead of holding it artificially high. Benefit: lower compression ratio in cold weather = significant energy savings. Control: condenser fan cycling or fan speed reduces as ambient drops. Floating always has a floor — the minimum condensing pressure that still leaves the TXV or metering device enough pressure differential to feed the coil, taken from the system design data. Below that floor the head pressure control holds pressure up; floating head and head pressure control are two halves of the same cold-weather strategy, not opposites.
Q89medium
A walk-in cooler compressor trips repeatedly on the low-pressure cutout (LPC) during normal winter operation, yet the cooler is maintaining setpoint temperature. What is the MOST LIKELY cause and the correct remedy?
  • A) A restricted liquid line filter drier is reducing refrigerant flow and causing low suction pressure — replace the drier
  • B) Refrigerant overcharge is flooding the evaporator and lowering suction pressure — recover excess refrigerant
  • C) Low ambient is dropping head pressure and starving the TXV — install a head pressure control
  • D) The LPC setpoint is factory-set too high — lower the cut-out in the field to stop the nuisance trips
Correct answer: C
In cold weather the air passing over the condenser is colder, the condenser rejects heat too easily, and condensing (head) pressure falls. A thermostatic expansion valve is driven by the pressure difference across it, so it needs a minimum condensing pressure to push its rated flow. When head pressure sags, flow through the valve drops, the evaporator is starved, suction pressure falls below the low-pressure cut-out, and the compressor trips — even though the box is still holding setpoint, because the trips are short and the load is light in winter. The remedy is a head pressure control that holds condensing pressure up as ambient falls: condenser fan cycling on pressure or temperature, a fan speed controller, or a flooding valve that backs liquid into the condenser to reduce its active surface. The minimum condensing pressure it is set to hold is whatever keeps enough differential across the metering device for that refrigerant and that evaporator temperature, so it is taken from the system design data rather than from a rule of thumb. Lowering the low-pressure cut-out only hides the symptom: the evaporator stays starved, refrigerant velocity stays too low to return oil, and the compressor runs short of both cooling and lubrication. A restricted drier is a year-round restriction, not a seasonal one, and it shows up as a temperature drop across the drier with high superheat; an overcharge raises head pressure rather than lowering it.
Key concept: Head pressure control: required in cold-climate commercial refrigeration. Methods: condenser fan cycling (pressure or temperature controlled), fan speed drive, or flooding the condenser with refrigerant (flooding valve). Holding a minimum condensing pressure prevents TXV starvation, low-pressure nuisance trips, poor oil return and loss of compressor cooling; the value to hold comes from the system design data for that refrigerant and evaporator temperature. Low-pressure cut-out trips that appear only in winter, on a box that is still holding setpoint, point first at a missing or failed head pressure control — not at the cut-out setting, which should never be moved to silence a symptom.
Q90medium
A water-cooled condenser on a small commercial unit is fitted with a pressure-actuated water regulating valve. What does it do?
  • A) It modulates condenser water flow to hold head pressure at its setting
  • B) It shuts the water off if the condenser water temperature rises too high
  • C) It holds a minimum flow through the condenser at all times for cooling
  • D) It throttles the water to keep the leaving water temperature constant
Correct answer: A
A water regulating valve is a head pressure control that happens to act on water. Its power element senses compressor discharge pressure: as head pressure rises the valve opens further, as head pressure falls it closes down, so the condenser is given only as much water as the load actually calls for. Two useful things follow. Head pressure is held steady enough for the metering device to keep feeding the evaporator even when the supply water is very cold — the same problem a low-ambient control solves on an air-cooled machine. And because the valve is spring-closed and pressure-opened, it shuts when the compressor stops and the pressure falls away, so water is not run through an idle condenser all night.

Set it too low and the metering device loses the pressure difference it needs and the coil starves; set it too high and water is wasted while the compression ratio stays wider than it needs to be. Note what the valve does not sense: it responds to refrigerant pressure, not to water temperature, so it neither holds the leaving water temperature constant nor trips on high water temperature. Nor is it a minimum-flow device — closing off completely at shutdown is one of the things it is there to do.
Key concept: Water regulating valve: senses compressor DISCHARGE PRESSURE and modulates condenser water flow to hold head pressure at its setting, then closes when the compressor stops so no water runs through an idle condenser. It is the water-side equivalent of low-ambient head pressure control. Set too low, the metering device loses its pressure differential and the coil starves; set too high, water is wasted and the compression ratio stays wide. Failure modes: stuck open gives low head pressure and high water use; stuck closed gives high head pressure and a high-pressure trip. Judge a water-cooled condenser by two numbers — the water temperature rise (how much heat the water is carrying) and the approach between condensing temperature and leaving water temperature (how well the tubes are transferring).
Q91hard
A large commercial HVAC-R system is equipped with a demand defrost control (electronic defrost timer/controller). How does demand defrost differ from time-initiated/time-terminated defrost?
  • A) Demand defrost and time-initiated defrost are functionally identical — the term "demand" refers to on-demand manual initiation
  • B) Demand defrost monitors actual frost accumulation and defrosts only when buildup requires it
  • C) Demand defrost runs the defrost heater at reduced power continuously to prevent frost — the heater never fully shuts off
  • D) Demand defrost uses a manual initiation only — an operator must start each defrost cycle
Correct answer: B
Demand defrost: defrosts only when needed (based on measured frost accumulation) vs fixed-time schedule. Time-initiated/time-terminated defrost runs defrosts at fixed intervals (e.g., every 6 hours) regardless of frost buildup — wastes energy when little frost is present, and may not defrost often enough under heavy conditions. Demand defrost senses frost via air pressure differential across the coil, a capacitance sensor, or temperature-rise sensing, and initiates defrost only when buildup is sufficient. Benefits: fewer unnecessary defrosts and energy savings (up to 30% reduction in defrost energy), improved product quality (less product temperature cycling), longer equipment life.
Key concept: Defrost types: 1) Time-initiated/time-terminated: defrosts at fixed intervals, ends at time or temperature. Simple, least efficient. 2) Time-initiated/temperature-terminated: defrosts at fixed times, ends when the coil climbs past the termination temperature set for that coil (well above freezing, so the ice is proven gone), with the time limit only as a backstop. 3) Demand defrost: pressure differential (most accurate) or adaptive algorithm (learns frost accumulation rate). Demand defrost sensors: differential pressure switch across evaporator coil (coil iced = high pressure drop). Modern controllers: store defrost history, adapt interval. Refrigeration racks: often programmed per zone based on product type.
Q92medium
A three-phase condenser fan motor on a commercial rooftop unit fails to start and trips the overload relay. After resetting, the motor hums but does not rotate. What is the MOST likely cause?
  • A) The motor's start capacitor has failed and it cannot develop enough starting torque
  • B) The motor is wired for 208V but connected to 240V — overvoltage is tripping the overload
  • C) One phase of the supply is open — a motor cannot start on the two remaining phases
  • D) The overload relay is set too low for this motor and needs to be adjusted upward
Correct answer: C
Single-phasing: one phase open at the contactor, the fusing or the motor leads, so the motor cannot generate enough torque to accelerate, draws locked-rotor current, and trips the overload. A three-phase induction motor needs all three phases to produce a rotating magnetic field. With one phase open, what is left is a single-phase pulsating field — the motor will keep turning if it was already running, at greatly reduced capacity, but it cannot start from standstill; it hums and sits there. Meanwhile it draws locked-rotor current (5-7 times FLA) through the two live phases and heats the windings fast, which is what the overload is reacting to. Causes: one blown fuse of three, a burned or open contactor pole, a loose or broken motor lead, or an open in the supply.
Key concept: Single-phasing causes: one blown fuse of three, an open or burned contactor pole, a loose terminal, a broken motor lead, an open in the supply. Detection: clamp all three line conductors during the start attempt — the open phase reads 0 A while the other two pull locked-rotor current. Do NOT judge it by voltage at the motor terminals with the motor still connected: the dead terminal is back-fed through the windings and floats at roughly half of line-to-line voltage, so all three pairs show a reading and the fault appears to have gone away. To confirm with a voltmeter, de-energize and lock out, disconnect the motor leads, then check the supply side of each fuse and each contactor pole, where an open phase really does read zero. On a motor already running, current in the two live phases climbs to about 1.7 times normal (the square root of three) as it tries to hold the load. A phase-loss protection relay is worth fitting on larger motors. Single-phasing is the leading cause of burnout on three-phase motors.
Troubleshooting 23 questions
Q93medium
A technician checks the "condenser split" on an air-cooled condensing unit. The condensing saturation temperature is compared against which temperature?
  • A) The wet-bulb temperature of the air leaving the condenser
  • B) The dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the condenser
  • C) The liquid line temperature leaving the condenser outlet
  • D) The return air temperature entering the evaporator coil
Correct answer: B
Condenser split is the condensing saturation temperature minus the dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the condenser. An air-cooled condenser can only push its heat into the air it is given, so the entering air is the reference the condensing temperature has to be judged against. A condensing temperature on its own means nothing until you know whether the unit is sitting in cool morning air or in full afternoon sun. A split much wider than the unit was designed for says the coil cannot move its heat: fouled fins, a failed fan or one turning the wrong way, discharge air recirculating around the unit, blocked airflow, or non-condensables occupying condenser volume. A split narrower than design, on a unit that is cooling poorly, points the other way and suggests there is not enough refrigerant in the coil to load it. Note what the other comparisons actually give you: condensing saturation temperature against liquid line temperature is subcooling, a different measurement answering a different question, and wet-bulb belongs to evaporative equipment rather than a dry air-cooled coil.
Key concept: Condenser split = condensing saturation temperature minus entering-air dry-bulb temperature. Head pressure is meaningless until it is read against the ambient the unit is working into. Wide split: dirty coil, fan failure or reversed rotation, recirculating discharge air, restricted airflow, non-condensables. Narrow split with poor cooling: low charge. Do not confuse split with subcooling, which compares condensing saturation temperature to liquid line temperature and speaks to charge and liquid quality instead.
Q94hard
During a service call a technician finds the suction line warm and dry at the compressor, suction pressure below normal, and frost forming on the evaporator only at the inlet. This indicates:
  • A) A blocked or dirty condenser coil
  • B) A restricted expansion valve
  • C) Low airflow from a dirty air filter
  • D) An overcharge of refrigerant
Correct answer: B
Low suction pressure with high superheat and frost only at the coil inlet means the evaporator is being underfed with refrigerant. A restricted or underperforming expansion valve meters too little liquid into the coil. The small amount that does get through flashes and boils immediately at the inlet, frosting that one spot, while the rest of the coil face runs dry and warm. Because the refrigerant is fully boiled off long before the outlet, the vapour keeps picking up heat all the way to the compressor, which is why superheat is high and the suction line is warm and dry rather than cold and wet. Check the valve for a restriction, confirm the sensing bulb is tight, insulated and on a clean horizontal run, and verify the bulb still holds its charge before condemning anything. A dirty air filter also ices an evaporator, but it starves the coil of air rather than of refrigerant, so the ice spreads across the whole face and superheat falls instead of rising. A dirty condenser coil and an overcharge both drive head pressure up; neither produces low suction pressure with a warm suction line.
Key concept: Frost at the evaporator inlet only, with low suction pressure, high superheat and a warm suction line, means a starved coil: a restricted metering device or too little charge. Over-feeding is the opposite signature - low superheat, higher suction pressure, and frost or sweat travelling back along the suction line to the compressor, NOT a coil iced across its face. A coil iced end to end points at low airflow.
Q95easy
A single-phase capacitor-start hermetic compressor hums, draws locked-rotor current and trips its overload. Supply voltage at the compressor terminals is correct. What should be checked next?
  • A) The thermostat setpoint and the indoor blower speed setting
  • B) The refrigerant charge, since low charge stops a motor starting
  • C) The start capacitor and the start relay in the start circuit
  • D) The condenser fan blade pitch, since a bent blade loads the motor
Correct answer: C
A motor that hums at locked-rotor current has power and continuity but no starting torque, so look at the components that produce that torque. Voltage confirmed at the compressor terminals means the supply, disconnect and contactor have all done their job, which puts the fault in the motor or in what starts it. On a capacitor-start hermetic the starting torque comes from the start winding together with the start capacitor and the start or potential relay that switches it in and back out again; a PSC compressor has no start capacitor and no start relay at all, and on that machine the equivalent check is the run capacitor. A failed start capacitor, a relay whose contacts have burned open, or an open start winding leaves the rotor standing still while the run winding draws locked-rotor amps until the overload opens. Those parts are external, inexpensive and a common failure, so test them before condemning the compressor. Keep in mind that a mechanically seized compressor produces the same symptom, so if the start components test good the compressor itself becomes the suspect. Discharge any capacitor through a proper resistor before handling it.
Key concept: Humming plus locked-rotor amps plus an overload trip, with correct voltage at the terminals, means no starting torque. Identify the motor type first, because it decides what to test. On a capacitor-start machine the order of attack is start capacitor, start or potential relay contacts, start winding continuity, then a mechanically seized compressor. On a PSC compressor there is no start capacitor or start relay, and an OPEN run capacitor there produces the same dead hum, while a merely weak run capacitor gives high running amps and hard starting instead. Always confirm voltage at the compressor terminals rather than at the disconnect, and discharge capacitors through a resistor before handling them.
Q96medium
A single-phase rooftop condensing unit's compressor hums and trips its overload on every start attempt. During a start attempt, voltage measured at the outdoor disconnect holds at 240 V while voltage measured at the compressor terminals collapses to about 190 V. What does the difference between those two readings localize?
  • A) A supply problem at the utility transformer feeding the building
  • B) High resistance between the disconnect and the compressor terminals
  • C) A failed start capacitor unable to give the motor its starting torque
  • D) A seized compressor drawing locked rotor current until it overheats
Correct answer: B
Voltage only tells the truth under load, and a drop measured between two points is made in the length of circuit between them. Standing still, a corroded lug, a loose terminal or a burnt contactor contact carries no current and drops no voltage, so everything measures perfectly. Ask the compressor to start and it draws locked-rotor current for a moment; that current through a high-resistance joint produces a large voltage drop, and what reaches the motor is no longer enough to develop starting torque. The rotor stays put, locked-rotor current continues, and the overload does its job. Because the two readings were taken at the same instant, they localize the fault: full voltage at the disconnect with low voltage at the terminals puts the loss between them - pitted contactor contacts, a loose or corroded connection, an undersized or badly spliced conductor. Look for discolouration and heat damage, and measure the drop across each connection and across the closed contactor while the machine is trying to start.

If the supply itself were weak, the disconnect reading would sag along with the terminal reading instead of holding at 240 V. A failed start capacitor leaves full voltage standing at the terminals while the motor hums, so it puts no drop between the two measuring points. A seized compressor also draws locked-rotor current, but through a sound supply path the terminal voltage would stay close to the disconnect reading rather than falling 50 volts below it.
Key concept: Measure voltage under load, at both ends of the suspect run, at the same moment. Full voltage at the disconnect with a large drop at the compressor terminals during a start attempt puts the fault between them: pitted contactor contacts, a loose or corroded terminal, an undersized or poorly spliced conductor. Both readings sagging together points upstream to the service or the supply. Neither reading sagging, with the motor humming at locked-rotor current, points at the motor and the components that start it. Low terminal voltage is not a nuisance - it means low starting torque, prolonged locked-rotor current and a cooked winding, and it is a common root cause behind repeat compressor failures.
Q97hard
A system has been open for repairs. What tells the technician that evacuation is finished and the system is ready to charge?
  • A) The manifold compound gauge reads 29 inches of mercury on the low side
  • B) The vacuum pump has run continuously on the system for a full 30 minutes
  • C) A micron gauge holds at or below 500 microns on a standing vacuum test
  • D) The low-side manifold gauge settles at zero psi with the pump running
Correct answer: C
Evacuation is judged by a micron reading that holds, not by gauge position or pump run time. The point of evacuation is to remove air, non-condensables and water vapour. Water only boils out of the system once the absolute pressure is driven well below the vapour pressure of water at the system temperature, and the usual industry target is 500 microns or lower before charging. Reaching that number once is not enough: the pump is valved off and the reading watched. A stable reading means the system is dry and tight; a reading that climbs and levels off means moisture is still boiling; a reading that keeps climbing means a leak.

The three wrong answers all share one flaw — none of them can actually resolve a deep vacuum. A manifold compound gauge is graduated in inches of mercury, and its whole scale from 29 inches to a perfect vacuum covers everything below about 25,000 microns, so it cannot tell 25,000 microns from 500. Zero psi on the low-side gauge is simply atmospheric pressure, which is where evacuation starts, not where it ends. And run time proves nothing on its own: a large system, a restricted hose, a wet system or a tired pump can all still be far above target after 30 minutes, while a small dry system may be there much sooner.
Key concept: Evacuation is verified with an electronic micron (vacuum) gauge, not with the manifold compound gauge, and not by clock time. Target 500 microns or lower before charging, then isolate the pump and perform a standing vacuum test: stable = dry and tight, rises and levels off = residual moisture, keeps rising = leak. Multiple (triple) evacuation, broken with dry nitrogen, dehydrates a wet system faster than one long pull.
Q98hard
An air-to-air heat pump in heating mode has lost most of its capacity. The outdoor coil is packed solid with ice, the machine has run for hours and has never entered a defrost cycle, and suction pressure is very low. Where should the technician look first?
  • A) The defrost initiation sensor and the control board reading it
  • B) The refrigerant charge, because ice on a coil always means low charge
  • C) The reversing valve, which must be stuck between heating and cooling
  • D) The auxiliary heat strips, which are not being staged on to help
Correct answer: A
Frost on the outdoor coil is normal in heating — in that mode the outdoor coil is the evaporator and it runs below freezing and below the dew point of the outdoor air. What is abnormal is that the control never acted on it. A heat pump permits defrost either on time and temperature (a timer that runs only while the compressor runs, gated by an outdoor coil sensor showing the coil is cold enough to be frosting) or on demand, from the spread between coil temperature and outdoor ambient or from the pressure drop across the coil. If that coil sensor is open, shorted, drifted or clamped where it does not read coil temperature, the board never sees the condition that allows a defrost, and the machine ices itself solid while every other reading simply follows from the blocked coil. Check the sensor's resistance against the manufacturer's resistance-temperature table, check where and how it is clamped, and force a defrost at the board to prove the reversing valve shifts and the outdoor fan stops.

Low suction pressure and lost capacity here are consequences of an ice-blocked evaporator, not evidence of an undercharge; the charge cannot be judged at all until the coil has been thawed and the machine run clean. A reversing valve stuck part-way would show poor capacity in both modes with the pressures converging, not a defrost that never begins. Staging the auxiliary heat would hide the complaint while the outdoor coil stayed frozen.
Key concept: In heating, an iced outdoor coil is expected — clearing it on time is what defrost is for. A machine that runs for hours without ever entering defrost has a defrost CONTROL fault, not a refrigerant fault. Check what tells the board the coil is cold: the outdoor coil sensor or defrost thermostat, its position and clamping, and its resistance against the manufacturer's resistance-temperature table; then force a defrost to prove the reversing valve shifts and the outdoor fan stops. Judge the charge only after the coil is thawed, because an ice-blocked coil drags suction pressure down by itself. Termination is the other half of the same control: terminate too early and ice is left behind, too late and heat is wasted.
Q99hard
An air-to-air heat pump is calling for heat but suction pressure is low and the technician suspects the reversing valve never shifted out of the cooling position. Which observation CONFIRMS the valve is still in cooling?
  • A) The outdoor coil is frosting while the indoor coil delivers warm supply air
  • B) Discharge pressure at the compressor reads higher than suction pressure
  • C) The outdoor coil runs warm while the indoor coil blows cool air
  • D) The reversing valve solenoid coil shows continuity with the power off
Correct answer: C
Which coil is rejecting heat tells you which way the valve is set. In heating, the reversing valve sends discharge gas to the indoor coil, so the indoor coil is the condenser (hot, warm supply air) and the outdoor coil is the evaporator (cold, often frosted). If the valve is stuck in the cooling position during a call for heat, those roles are swapped: the outdoor coil runs warm because it is still acting as the condenser, and the indoor coil is boiling refrigerant, so the supply air comes off cool. That reversal is the confirmation.

A frosted outdoor coil with warm supply air is what correct heating operation looks like, not a fault. Discharge pressure being higher than suction pressure is true of every running system in either mode, so it distinguishes nothing. Continuity through the solenoid coil only proves the winding is not open — the coil can read fine while the valve body is mechanically stuck or while the coil is never energized by the control circuit, so it must be backed up by measuring voltage at the coil during the heat call and by feeling the valve body tubes.
Key concept: Reversing valve position is confirmed by which coil is condensing. Heating: indoor coil hot (condenser), outdoor coil cold or frosted (evaporator). Cooling, or stuck in cooling: outdoor coil warm, indoor coil cold. Back that up by measuring voltage at the solenoid during the call and by comparing the temperatures of the tubes at the valve body. A coil that reads continuity is not proof the valve has shifted.
Q100medium
A technician measures pressures on an R-410A heat pump running in cooling mode: suction 126 psig, discharge 364 psig. From the R-410A pressure-temperature chart, the saturation temperature is 43°F at the suction pressure and 110°F at the discharge pressure. Indoor return air is 75°F and the suction line at the evaporator outlet measures 58°F. What are the condensing temperature and the suction superheat?
  • A) Condensing temp = 110°F, superheat = 32°F
  • B) Condensing temp = 43°F, superheat = 15°F
  • C) Condensing temp = 110°F, superheat = 58°F
  • D) Condensing temp = 110°F, superheat = 15°F
Correct answer: D
Condensing temperature is the saturation temperature at the discharge pressure = 110°F. Superheat = suction line temperature − saturation temperature at the suction pressure = 58°F − 43°F = 15°F. Superheat is measured against the saturation temperature at the coil, so subtracting the coil saturation temperature from the 75°F return air is not superheat, and the 58°F suction line reading on its own is not superheat either. The saturation temperature at the suction pressure is the evaporating temperature, not the condensing temperature. Judge the condensing temperature against the measured outdoor ambient rather than against a fixed number — it normally sits roughly 20–30°F above ambient, so 110°F is ordinary on a warm day. A thermostatic expansion valve system is normally set for 8–12°F of suction superheat; a fixed-orifice system runs higher and swings with load and ambient.
Key concept: Superheat = actual suction line temperature − saturation temperature at suction pressure. Subcooling = saturation temperature at discharge pressure − actual liquid line temperature. Both need a PT chart plus a thermometer on the line. Condensing temperature = saturation temperature at discharge pressure, and it is judged against outdoor ambient, not against a fixed value.
Q101easy
A split system air conditioner cools poorly and the evaporator coil is completely iced over. The filter is clean and airflow appears normal. What should be checked next?
  • A) Check refrigerant charge (suction pressure) and for a restricted TXV
  • B) Check the thermostat setpoint — if set too low, the system will over-cool and freeze
  • C) Check the compressor — worn valves cut capacity and freeze the evaporator coil
  • D) Check the condenser for dirt — a dirty condenser causes evaporator icing
Correct answer: A
Evaporator icing with good airflow points to a low refrigerant charge or a restricted metering device. Normal evaporator temperature is 35–45°F (2–7°C). If suction pressure drops too low — undercharge, or a restricted or stuck-closed TXV — the evaporator falls below 32°F (0°C) and moisture in the air freezes on the coil. First let the ice thaw completely, because airflow will not penetrate ice. Then take gauge and superheat readings. Low suction with high superheat means a starved evaporator: undercharge, a restricted or stuck-closed metering device, or a liquid line restriction. Subcooling separates those — an undercharge reads low subcooling, while a liquid line or drier restriction reads high subcooling with a temperature drop across the restriction. Low suction with low superheat points the other way, to low airflow or low load. Worn compressor valves raise suction pressure rather than lowering it, so they do not ice a coil.
Key concept: Iced evaporator causes: 1) Low refrigerant charge (low suction, high superheat). 2) Restricted TXV or metering device (low suction, high superheat). 3) Low airflow or low load (low suction eventually, but with low superheat). Thaw first, then diagnose. High superheat = starved evaporator. Low superheat with icing = look at airflow and load, not at the charge.
Q102medium
At rated conditions, a technician measures 30°F (17°C) of suction superheat at the evaporator outlet of a system fitted with a thermostatic expansion valve. What does this reading indicate?
  • A) The system is overcharged — excess refrigerant raises superheat at the evaporator outlet
  • B) The condenser is too efficient — excessive subcooling is causing high suction superheat
  • C) The evaporator is starved — refrigerant fully evaporates well before the outlet
  • D) Normal operation — high superheat indicates efficient compressor performance
Correct answer: C
Suction superheat of 30°F against an 8–12°F target means a starved evaporator. When refrigerant fully vaporizes early in the coil, the remaining coil surface superheats vapour instead of absorbing heat from the space, so evaporator capacity is wasted. On a thermostatic expansion valve system, a sustained reading above roughly 15°F is worth investigating; at 30°F the coil is badly starved. Investigate refrigerant charge (undercharge), a restricted or stuck-closed expansion valve, and liquid line restrictions. An overcharge does the opposite — it floods the coil and drives superheat down — and high subcooling on its own does not raise suction superheat.
Key concept: Suction superheat target on a thermostatic expansion valve system: 8–12°F at the evaporator outlet. Sustained readings above roughly 15°F = starved evaporator. Causes: undercharge, restricted expansion valve, liquid line restriction. High superheat wastes evaporator surface on superheating instead of boiling, and it raises discharge temperature, heat-stressing the compressor. Discharge superheat normally runs far above suction superheat and is not the reading used for this call.
Q103hard
A hermetic compressor will not run. Winding-to-winding resistance readings are normal and balanced, but an insulation resistance test reads very low from a winding to the compressor shell. What does this indicate?
  • A) The internal overload is open and will reset once the shell cools
  • B) Normal for a hermetic motor, since the windings return through the shell
  • C) The run capacitor has failed and is grounding the start winding
  • D) A winding is grounded to the shell, so the compressor is replaced
Correct answer: D
Resistance between terminals proves the windings are continuous; only an insulation test says whether they are still isolated from the shell. Common-to-start and common-to-run readings that sit in spec confirm the copper is intact and the windings are balanced, which is exactly why the meter looks reassuring on a motor that is finished. An insulation resistance tester applies a high test voltage between the windings and the earthed shell, and a very low reading means the insulation has broken down and current is leaking to ground. That is a grounded motor: it cannot be repaired in the field, and the compressor is replaced. Treat it as a burnout rather than a simple swap, because the same event that destroyed the insulation loads the circuit with acid and carbon. Check the oil for acid, clean the circuit, fit the appropriate driers and evacuate properly, or the replacement will fail the same way. For contrast, an open internal overload reads as an open circuit between terminals rather than as a path to ground, and a hermetic motor is never intended to conduct through its shell. Isolate, lock out and confirm the circuit is dead before applying an insulation tester, and discharge the windings afterwards.
Key concept: Winding resistance and insulation resistance answer different questions. Terminal-to-terminal resistance tells you whether a winding is continuous and balanced (open or shorted turns). Winding-to-shell insulation resistance, taken with a megohmmeter, tells you whether the winding is still isolated from ground. A low reading to the shell means a grounded winding: replace the compressor and treat the system for burnout contamination, including an oil acid check, clean-up driers and a deep evacuation. Lock out and verify the circuit is de-energized before testing, and never insulation-test a live circuit.
Q104medium
A packaged rooftop unit (RTU) is running but not cooling adequately. Both refrigerant circuits on this dual-circuit unit show normal pressures. The space temperature is 72°F (22°C) while the cooling setpoint is 68°F (20°C). What should be checked?
  • A) The compressors — short-cycling on the low-pressure control cuts run time too short
  • B) The economizer or fresh-air damper stuck open, adding outdoor air heat load
  • C) The refrigerant charge — add refrigerant until the temperature setpoint is reached
  • D) The thermostat — replace the thermostat if temperature is not being achieved
Correct answer: B
An RTU that will not hold setpoint while its refrigerant pressures read normal is telling you to look beyond the refrigerant circuit. Normal pressures mean the refrigerant system is working; it simply cannot overcome the load it is being handed. Investigate: an economizer damper stuck open or a fresh-air damper out of adjustment, either of which drags outdoor heat into the return; a dirty condenser coil; a dirty evaporator coil restricting airflow; duct leakage; missing supply duct insulation; return air bypassing the space; or a building load beyond the equipment's capacity on an extreme heat day. Normal pressures on both circuits also rule out a low-pressure-control cutout, and adding refrigerant to a system that already reads normal only overcharges it.
Key concept: RTU not meeting setpoint with normal refrigerant pressures: check the economizer and dampers (stuck open = extra load), coil cleanliness on both coils, duct leakage, and building load. The refrigerant system may be perfectly correct — the problem is elsewhere. Work through the causes systematically instead of adding refrigerant.
Q105easy
A window air conditioner is running but not cooling. The evaporator coil is completely covered in ice. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
  • A) A weak run capacitor is making the compressor run slowly and overcool the coil
  • B) Restricted airflow over the evaporator dropping the coil below freezing
  • C) The refrigerant charge is too high, causing liquid to flood the evaporator
  • D) The condenser is too small for the application, reducing heat rejection
Correct answer: B
Evaporator icing: most commonly caused by insufficient airflow across the coil (dirty filter, blocked return, or failed fan). Normal operation: evaporator coil surface stays above 32°F (0°C) as warm air flows across it, continuously melting any frost. Restricted airflow (clogged filter, failed blower, blocked return): coil surface temperature drops below freezing, moisture freezes faster than it can drain. Ice eventually insulates the coil completely, stopping heat transfer. Also can be caused by low refrigerant charge (low suction pressure = low coil temp). An overcharge does the opposite — it raises suction pressure and coil temperature, so it floods the compressor rather than icing the coil. A weak run capacitor does not slow the compressor either: a single-phase induction motor runs at essentially fixed speed, and a weak capacitor shows up as hard starting, high amp draw, or overload trips — and any loss of compressor capacity leaves the coil warmer, not frozen. Start diagnosis with: check filter, check blower operation.
Key concept: Evaporator ice/frost: most common cause = restricted airflow. Check: air filter (clogged?), evaporator blower (running?), return air path (blocked?). Second cause: low refrigerant charge (low suction pressure = coil too cold). Diagnosis order: check airflow first (easy/free fix), then check refrigerant. To restore: shut down, thaw coil, fix root cause before restart.
Q106easy
A split system air conditioner is not cooling and the outdoor unit is not running, but the indoor air handler fan is running. What should be checked first?
  • A) The evaporator coil for ice formation blocking airflow
  • B) Power to the outdoor unit: breaker, disconnect, and contactor
  • C) The TXV sensing bulb position
  • D) Refrigerant charge level — low charge prevents outdoor unit from starting
Correct answer: B
Indoor running but outdoor unit not starting: check power supply to the outdoor unit first. The indoor blower fan and outdoor compressor/condenser fan run on separate circuits. A tripped circuit breaker, open disconnect switch, or blown fuse at the outdoor unit disconnect kills the outdoor circuit while leaving indoor running. After confirming power: check the contactor (coil energized? contacts closed?), capacitor (start/run capacitors fail frequently — multimeter capacitance test), and check for safety control lockout (high/low pressure switch).
Key concept: Outdoor unit not running, indoor fan on: 1)Check outdoor breaker/disconnect first (separate circuit). 2)Check outdoor contactor (coil voltage present? contacts closed?). 3)Check capacitor (most common failure: run capacitor for compressor or fan). 4)Check safety lockouts (HP/LP switch). Capacitor test: discharge first, measure capacitance, compare to rating (±10%).
Q107medium
A technician is checking evaporator superheat on a system charged with R-407C. The gauge reads 40 psig at the evaporator outlet and the outlet line temperature is 32°F. The manufacturer's pressure-based PT chart lists three temperatures at 40 psig: Avg 16.2°F, Bubble 10.4°F and Dew 21.9°F. Which chart value gives the correct superheat?
  • A) The dew value, for a superheat of about 10°F
  • B) The bubble value, for a superheat of about 22°F
  • C) The average value, for a superheat of about 16°F
  • D) The liquid line temperature at the condenser outlet
Correct answer: A
Superheat is heat added to vapour beyond saturated vapour, so on a blend with glide it is measured from the dew temperature: 32°F - 21.9°F, about 10°F. R-407C is a zeotropic blend: at one pressure it starts boiling at the bubble point and finishes at the dew point, and on this chart the two are 11.5°F apart at 40 psig. The refrigerant is only fully vapour once it reaches the dew temperature, so that is the reference for superheat. Subtracting the bubble value gives about 22°F, overstating superheat by the whole glide; a technician who believes that reading may diagnose a starved coil or low charge and add refrigerant to a system that does not need it. The average value still counts part of the boiling range as superheat, giving about 16°F. The bubble column is the right one for subcooling at the condenser outlet, but the liquid line temperature has nothing to do with suction superheat.
Key concept: Zeotropic blends with glide (R-407C, R-448A, R-449A) list two saturation temperatures per pressure. Superheat = actual temperature minus DEW temperature (saturated vapour). Subcooling = BUBBLE temperature (saturated liquid) minus actual temperature. Using bubble for superheat overstates it by the glide and can lead to overcharging.
Q108medium
A walk-in freezer is barely holding temperature and the compressor runs almost continuously. Gauges show suction pressure well below normal and evaporator superheat well above normal. What does this point to?
  • A) Excessive heat load from failed door gaskets and heavy door traffic
  • B) An overcharge that is flooding the evaporator and forcing continuous run
  • C) Reduced capacity from an undercharge or a liquid line restriction
  • D) A thermostat that cannot recognize that the setpoint has been reached
Correct answer: C
Low suction with high superheat means the evaporator is not getting enough refrigerant — a capacity problem, not a load problem. Read the two numbers together. High superheat says the liquid is boiling off early and the last part of the coil is doing nothing but warming vapour, so the coil is being underfed. Low suction pressure says the compressor is pulling on a coil that cannot supply it. Underfeeding comes from too little refrigerant in the system or from something in the way of it: an undercharge or a leak, a restricted filter drier or liquid line, a plugged metering device screen, or a TXV that has lost its bulb charge. The compressor runs on and on because the reduced capacity barely matches the load.

This is the mirror image of a load problem. When the box is simply asked to remove more heat than the equipment is sized for — bad gaskets, constant door traffic, warm product loaded in — the coil is fully fed, so suction pressure sits normal or high and superheat measures normal; the compressor runs continuously because the load never lets it catch up, and nothing about the refrigerant circuit is faulty. An overcharge does the opposite of what is measured here: it floods the coil and drives superheat down, with high subcooling and high head pressure. And a thermostat that could not sense setpoint would drive the box below setpoint, not leave it struggling to reach it.
Key concept: Continuous running has two very different causes, and superheat separates them. Reduced capacity: suction low, superheat high — undercharge, leak, restricted drier or liquid line, plugged or failed metering device, frost-blocked coil, dead evaporator fan. Excessive load: suction normal or high, superheat normal — door gaskets, door traffic, warm product, high ambient on the condenser, undersized equipment. Take pressures and superheat before condemning either the charge or the box. Overcharge shows the opposite signature: low superheat, high subcooling, high head pressure.
Q109medium
A system is cooling poorly. Suction pressure is low and evaporator superheat is high, but subcooling at the condenser outlet is higher than normal, and the filter drier is noticeably colder at its outlet than at its inlet, with sweat forming on it. What does this point to?
  • A) An undercharge, since low suction with high superheat means low refrigerant
  • B) A restricted liquid line filter drier holding liquid back upstream
  • C) An overcharge, because high subcooling comes from too much refrigerant
  • D) A TXV stuck wide open and overfeeding refrigerant into the evaporator
Correct answer: B
A restriction in the liquid line starves the coil in exactly the way an undercharge does, and subcooling is what separates the two. Low suction pressure with high superheat says one thing only: the evaporator is not getting enough refrigerant. Both faults produce it, so look upstream to tell them apart. An undercharge leaves too little liquid in the condenser, so subcooling reads LOW. A restriction leaves the compressor backing liquid up behind it, so subcooling reads HIGH while the coil downstream goes hungry.

The temperature drop across the drier is the direct evidence. Refrigerant is expanding through it as though it were a second metering device, losing pressure and therefore losing saturation temperature, which is why the outlet is cold enough to sweat — on a badly plugged drier, cold enough to frost — while the inlet stays warm. Recover, replace the drier, and treat the restriction as evidence rather than simply as a failed part: a drier that plugs and then plugs again says the system is dirty, so look for moisture, acid or burnout residue and check the metering device screen while you are in there. The remaining answers do not fit the readings. An overcharge does raise subcooling, but it raises suction pressure and lowers superheat rather than starving the coil, and it puts no temperature drop across the drier. A valve stuck wide open floods the coil, giving low superheat with high suction pressure — the opposite of what is measured.
Key concept: Low suction pressure with high superheat means the coil is underfed; by itself it does not say why. Separate the two causes with subcooling: LOW subcooling means there is not enough refrigerant in the system — undercharge or leak. HIGH subcooling means the refrigerant is there but something is holding it back — a restricted filter drier, a kinked or plugged liquid line, or a blocked metering device screen. Confirm a restriction by temperature: a real pressure drop across a component shows up as an outlet colder than the inlet, sweating or frosting at that point. Replace the drier, then find out why it plugged.
Q110hard
After a compressor burnout, what contamination must be addressed before installing a replacement compressor, and what is the procedure?
  • A) Only the condenser and evaporator need flushing — the compressor discharge and suction lines self-clean during operation
  • B) Only the refrigerant oil needs replacement — flush the system with new refrigerant twice and recharge
  • C) Install the new compressor and run it until the contamination is naturally removed through normal operation over several weeks
  • D) Acid, carbon, and moisture must be removed: flush, burnout driers, oil acid check, deep evacuation
Correct answer: D
After a compressor burnout, acid, carbon, and moisture are spread through the whole system and all of it must be removed before the replacement compressor runs. Acid formed by the thermal breakdown of oil and refrigerant attacks the winding insulation and plates copper onto bearing and valve surfaces, so a system left dirty destroys the new compressor. Procedure: 1) Recover the refrigerant. 2) Clean the lines and coils — flush with an approved flushing agent or blow through with dry nitrogen to carry out acid and carbon. 3) Fit an oversized burnout filter drier in the liquid line and a suction line drier ahead of the compressor. 4) Install the new compressor and charge it with the oil specified for that machine. 5) Triple evacuate — pull a vacuum, break it with dry nitrogen, repeat, then pull the final vacuum and prove it with a decay test, watching that the reading holds steady instead of creeping back up. 6) Charge and run the system, then acid-test the oil after the first day or two of operation; if acid or discolouration remains, change the drier cores and retest, and check the system again about two weeks later.
Key concept: Compressor burnout cleanup: 1) Recover the refrigerant. 2) Flush with an approved flushing agent or dry nitrogen to carry out acid and carbon. 3) Install a burnout drier in the liquid line plus a suction line drier. 4) New compressor with the specified oil — on HFC systems that is POE, which takes up moisture quickly, so keep the system open no longer than necessary. 5) Triple evacuate, breaking the vacuum with dry nitrogen between pulls, and prove the final vacuum with a decay test before charging. 6) Acid-test the oil after the first day or two of running; change drier cores and retest until it comes back clean, then recheck at about two weeks. Skipping the cleanup kills the replacement compressor within months, which is why the acid test — not the fact that the machine started — is what closes the job.
Q111hard
A technician is called to a system with oil logging (oil trapped in the evaporator). What causes oil logging and how is it corrected?
  • A) Oil logging is caused by excessive oil charge — drain excess oil from the system and recheck performance
  • B) Oil logging occurs only in systems with TXV valves — replace with cap tube to correct
  • C) Oil leaving the compressor is not returning — low suction line velocity or wrong oil type
  • D) Oil logging is caused by water contamination mixing with the oil — replace filter drier and all oil
Correct answer: C
Oil logging: oil circulates out of the compressor but cannot return — inadequate oil circulation lets it accumulate in low points and the evaporator. Refrigerant velocity carries oil through the system. If suction line velocity is too low (system running at partial load, oversized or incorrectly sized/routed piping), oil drops out of the refrigerant stream and pools. Risers need oil traps (P-traps) sized to maintain velocity even at minimum load. Wrong oil type/viscosity: too thick to flow at evaporator temperature. Low refrigerant charge also reduces velocity. Correction: verify line sizing and re-pipe as needed, add traps/risers, correct refrigerant velocity, verify oil specification and compatibility.
Key concept: Oil logging: oil pools in evaporator/suction line due to insufficient velocity. Causes: oversized suction line, no oil traps on vertical risers, partial-load operation, wrong oil viscosity, low charge. Fix: correct line sizing (velocity 500-1000 fpm horizontal, 1500 fpm minimum vertical risers), P-traps on risers, correct oil spec. Symptoms: compressor oil starvation, reduced capacity, low suction pressure.
Q112hard
A large commercial refrigeration system experiences repeated compressor failures within months of replacement. No obvious cause is found after each failure. What systematic approach should be taken to find the root cause?
  • A) Increase the frequency of filter drier replacement to monthly to prevent any contamination
  • B) Continue replacing compressors with higher-quality units until the problem stops
  • C) Switch to a different refrigerant type as the current refrigerant may be incompatible with the compressor
  • D) Perform a comprehensive audit of electrical, refrigerant, and operating conditions
Correct answer: D
Repeated compressor failure: symptom of an unresolved underlying problem — requires systematic root cause analysis. Audit: 1) Electrical: voltage quality (sags/harmonics), single-phasing, phase imbalance, improper motor protection settings. 2) Refrigerant circuit: operating pressures vs design (high head/low suction = high compression ratio), superheat/subcooling, liquid slugging (low superheat, flooded start), contamination and oil acid levels (acid, moisture). 3) Lubrication: wrong oil, oil logging, oil returning contaminated. 4) Operating conditions: high ambient, overloaded system, defrost effectiveness. 5) Installation: improper piping, incorrect electrical protection. Review operating logs for patterns, and inspect each failed compressor (failure mode determines root cause).
Key concept: Repeated compressor failure root causes: 1)Electrical (voltage quality, phase imbalance, wrong overloads). 2)Liquid slugging (low superheat, refrigerant migration, flooded start). 3)Lubrication (oil logging, contamination, wrong oil). 4)High compression ratio (dirty condenser, high ambient, low suction). 5)Contamination (acid, burnout residue). Failure mode analysis: liquid damage = flooding. Burnt windings = electrical/overheating. Worn bearings = lubrication. Document each failure.
Q113easy
A walk-in cooler is sitting right at setpoint but the compressor never cycles off. Suction and discharge pressures, superheat and subcooling all measure normal for the conditions. What is the MOST likely cause?
  • A) The room thermostat has failed closed and can no longer break the circuit
  • B) Low refrigerant charge is reducing capacity and forcing continuous running
  • C) The compressor contactor is welded closed — the compressor cannot shut off
  • D) The load exceeds system capacity — continuous running is correct under load
Correct answer: D
Normal readings with the box at setpoint point at the load, not at the equipment. The refrigerant circuit is telling you it is healthy: normal suction and discharge pressures with normal superheat and subcooling mean the coil is properly fed and the compressor is doing its rated work. A machine in that condition that still cannot get ahead of the box is simply being asked to remove more heat than it was sized for, so it runs continuously and just holds the line. Look at load sources: door gaskets and door alignment, door traffic, warm product loaded in, an evaporator fan out, a condensing unit sitting in a hot corner, or equipment undersized for how the box is now used.

Low charge is ruled out by the readings, not by the running time — an undercharged system shows low suction with high superheat and low subcooling, and this one does not. A thermostat failed closed or a welded contactor would keep the compressor running past setpoint and pull the box down below it, which is exactly what is not happening here; if the space had drifted below setpoint, those would be the first things to check. Continuous running with normal readings at setpoint is an operational finding, not a mechanical fault.
Key concept: Continuous compressor operation with the box at setpoint and all readings normal = load exceeds capacity, not a mechanical fault. Load sources: failed or damaged door gaskets, doors not latching or aligned, heavy door traffic, warm product loaded in, evaporator fan out, iced or dirty evaporator, condensing unit in a hot location, undersized equipment. Confirm with the readings before condemning anything: an undercharge would show low suction with high superheat and low subcooling. A thermostat stuck closed or a welded contactor drives the space BELOW setpoint — that is the symptom that sends you to the controls.
Q114medium
A split-system air conditioner produces adequate cooling but the indoor unit is producing water dripping from the front panel into the conditioned space rather than draining properly. What is the MOST common cause?
  • A) The refrigerant charge is too high, causing condensation on the exterior of the refrigerant lines
  • B) Low refrigerant charge is causing excessive coil icing, which melts and overflows
  • C) The condensate drain is blocked or the drain pan slope is insufficient
  • D) The indoor fan speed is too high, blowing condensate off the evaporator coil
Correct answer: C
Blocked condensate drain (algae, mold, debris) is the most common cause of indoor water leakage — water backs up, the pan overflows, and it spills from the unit. The condensate drain pan collects water that drips off the evaporator coil. A blocked drain causes the pan to fill and overflow. Algae growth in the drain line (common in humid environments) is the most common blockage cause. Additional causes: incorrect drain pan slope (should slope toward drain), cracked/leaking drain pan, drain line installed without adequate slope, condensate pump failure.
Key concept: Condensate drain maintenance: flush with water + bleach or biocide annually (prevents algae). Check drain pan: clean, crack-free, sloped toward drain. Drain line: 1/4 inch per foot slope minimum. Secondary drain (overflow): install in drain pan, plumbed to visible location (staining indicates primary drain blocked). Condensate pump (where gravity drain not possible): check float switch, pump operation, outlet restriction. Preventive: biocide tablets in drain pan. Split system drain: plastic condensate pan + PVC drain. Packaged unit: similar, sometimes harder to access.
Q115hard
A refrigeration system shows higher-than-normal discharge pressure, normal suction pressure, and higher-than-normal apparent subcooling. The measured condensing temperature is several degrees LOWER than the P-T chart saturation temperature for the measured discharge pressure. What does this MOST likely indicate?
  • A) Refrigerant undercharge — a low charge accounts for the abnormal pressure readings
  • B) A failed condenser fan motor — lost airflow raises condensing temperature and pressure
  • C) Refrigerant overcharge — liquid backing up in the condenser raises head and subcooling
  • D) Non-condensable gases in the condenser adding their own partial pressure to the total
Correct answer: D
Non-condensable gases give high discharge pressure, near-normal suction pressure, and inflated apparent subcooling. Air or nitrogen collects in the condenser and adds its own partial pressure to the refrigerant's, so the total pressure the gauge reads is higher than the refrigerant's temperature alone would produce. Because subcooling is calculated as (P-T saturation temperature at the measured discharge pressure) minus (liquid line temperature), that inflated pressure makes the calculated subcooling look larger than it really is. Diagnosis: read the tube surface temperature part-way along the actively condensing section of the coil and compare it with the P-T chart value for the measured discharge pressure — several degrees low means non-condensables are present. An overcharge also raises head pressure and subcooling, but on an overcharged system the condensing temperature still agrees with the chart, which is what separates the two.
Key concept: Non-condensable gas diagnosis: 1) Measure discharge pressure. 2) Measure the actual condensing temperature on the tube surface in the actively condensing (two-phase) part of the coil — NOT at the liquid line or condenser outlet, which are subcooled by design and will read below the chart on a perfectly healthy system. 3) Look up the saturation temperature on the P-T chart for the measured discharge pressure. 4) Actual condensing temperature several degrees below the chart value = non-condensables; the added gas raises total pressure without raising the refrigerant's temperature. 5) Cross-check with the standing pressure test, which needs no surface reading: shut the system down, let it sit until it has equalized to ambient, and compare standing head pressure with the saturation pressure for the ambient temperature — meaningfully higher means non-condensables. 6) Recover the charge, evacuate the system and recharge; do not vent to atmosphere. Entry points: incomplete evacuation, a system opened for service, or a system that has run in a vacuum through a low-side leak.