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This is the complete written list of our free 313A Refrigeration & AC Mechanic practice questions
— all 116 of them, with the correct answer marked, an explanation of
why it is correct, and a one-line key concept for revision.
Questions are grouped by the occupational standard topic areas used on the exam:
Refrigeration Cycle, Refrigerants, Components, Controls & Electrical, Troubleshooting.
Reading is useful, but recall is what the exam tests — work through the
timed 313A quiz as well, which shuffles the questions
and saves the ones you get wrong.
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is the same 116 questions with full explanations in one printable PDF — study without a signal.
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Refrigeration Cycle — 23 questions
Q1easy
In the basic vapour compression refrigeration cycle, what are the four main components in order?
- A) Compressor → Evaporator → Condenser → Expansion valve
- B) Compressor → Condenser → Expansion valve → Evaporator
- C) Evaporator → Condenser → Compressor → Expansion valve
- D) Condenser → Compressor → Evaporator → Expansion valve
Correct answer: B
Cycle order: Compressor → Condenser → Expansion valve → Evaporator. The compressor pumps high-pressure hot gas to the condenser (rejects heat), then through the expansion valve (pressure drop), then to the evaporator (absorbs heat from space), then back to the compressor.
Key concept: Memory trick: "Can Every Compressor Expand?" = Condenser → Evaporator → Compressor → Expansion. Reverse = normal cycle order.
Q2easy
In the refrigeration cycle, where does the refrigerant ABSORB heat from the space being cooled?
- A) Condenser
- B) Compressor
- C) Evaporator
- D) Expansion valve
Correct answer: C
Evaporator = heat absorption. The low-pressure liquid refrigerant enters the evaporator and boils (evaporates) by absorbing heat from the surrounding air or product. This is how cooling occurs — heat moves from the warm space into the refrigerant.
Key concept: Evaporator absorbs heat (cooling effect). Condenser rejects heat (hot side). Refrigerant carries heat from inside to outside.
Q3easy
What is the purpose of the condenser in a refrigeration system?
- A) To evaporate the refrigerant using heat from the room
- B) To reject heat and condense the refrigerant to a liquid
- C) To regulate refrigerant flow to the evaporator
- D) To compress refrigerant vapour for circulation
Correct answer: B
Condenser: rejects heat, converts vapour to liquid. High-temperature, high-pressure vapour from the compressor enters the condenser. Heat is rejected to the outside environment — ambient air (air-cooled) or water (water-cooled). As heat leaves, the vapour condenses into a high-pressure liquid ready for the metering device.
Key concept: Condenser: hot high-pressure vapour → high-pressure liquid + heat rejected to ambient. Hot ambient = condenser struggles = high head pressure. Dirty condenser coil = same effect.
Q4medium
Superheat in a refrigeration system refers to:
- A) The temperature increase of the refrigerant in the condenser
- B) The temperature of vapour above its boiling point at a given pressure
- C) The maximum operating temperature of the compressor
- D) Heat added to the refrigerant by the compressor during compression
Correct answer: B
Superheat = vapour temperature above saturation temperature at that pressure, measured at the evaporator outlet. At the evaporator outlet, refrigerant should be fully vaporized with some additional heat (superheat). Measured superheat = actual suction temperature − saturation temperature at suction pressure. Proper superheat (8–12°F typical) ensures no liquid enters the compressor.
Key concept: Superheat: vapour temp above saturation at suction pressure. Target 8–12°F (TXV system). Low superheat = liquid flood-back risk. High superheat = starving evaporator (low capacity).
Q5medium
Subcooling in a refrigeration system refers to:
- A) Cooling below the system's design temperature
- B) The liquid temperature below its saturation temperature
- C) Cooling in a secondary refrigeration circuit
- D) The temperature drop across the metering device
Correct answer: B
Subcooling = liquid temperature below its condensing (saturation) temperature at high-side pressure. Measured at liquid line = saturation temperature (at high-side pressure) − actual liquid line temperature. Typically 10–15°F. Ensures solid liquid (no flash gas) reaches the metering device — improves system efficiency. More subcooling = better capacity.
Key concept: Subcooling = how far below condensing temperature the liquid is. Measured at liquid line. Target 10–15°F. Flash gas at metering device = insufficient subcooling (low charge, restriction in liquid line, or inefficient condenser).
Q6hard
A refrigeration system has normal suction pressure but HIGH discharge pressure. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Refrigerant undercharge
- B) Poor condenser heat rejection
- C) TXV stuck fully closed
- D) Compressor valve failure
Correct answer: B
High discharge, normal suction = condenser problem. The condenser can't reject heat fast enough, causing discharge pressure to rise. Causes: fouled/dirty coil, failed condenser fan, high ambient temperature, air in system (non-condensable gas). Undercharge typically causes LOW discharge AND low suction. TXV issue = high superheat, normal/low discharge.
Key concept: High head pressure (discharge): condenser problem (dirty, fan failed, high ambient, non-condensables). Normal head, high superheat: TXV starving. Low both: undercharge or low suction pressure.
Q7hard
Non-condensable gases (air) trapped in a refrigeration system cause:
- A) Low suction pressure and frost on the evaporator
- B) High condensing pressure and temperature
- C) Compressor oil dilution
- D) The TXV to hunt continuously
Correct answer: B
Non-condensables cause high discharge pressure and elevated condensing temperature. Air and other non-condensables collect in the condenser top (lighter than refrigerant). They cannot be condensed, so they occupy condenser space and capacity, raising discharge pressure and reducing efficiency. Identify: measure condensing temperature from pressure-temperature chart — if actual temperature is lower than chart value for that pressure, non-condensables are present.
Key concept: Non-condensables: air/nitrogen trapped in system. High discharge pressure + condensing temperature LOWER than P-T chart value for that pressure = non-condensables. Must be recovered and properly evacuated.
Q8medium
When measuring system pressures on a running refrigeration system, the suction gauge reads below atmospheric (in vacuum). This indicates:
- A) The system is working at maximum efficiency
- B) Severely low charge or a blocked metering device
- C) The system is in pump-down mode
- D) The compressor is too large for the evaporator
Correct answer: B
Suction pressure in vacuum = severely low evaporator pressure. A running system should never pull into vacuum under normal operation. This indicates: 1) Very low refrigerant charge (barely any gas), 2) Completely blocked TXV or liquid line (nothing getting through), 3) The compressor is too large for the load. An extremely cold evaporator setpoint can also pull suction toward vacuum. Pull into vacuum risks drawing air/moisture through shaft seals.
Key concept: Suction in vacuum during operation = critical. Check: refrigerant charge (severe undercharge), blocked TXV (completely closed), liquid line restriction. Stop system immediately — compressor damage risk from lack of refrigerant cooling.
Q9easy
In the refrigeration cycle, what state (phase) is the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser under normal operating conditions?
- A) Superheated vapour — all vapour, well above saturation temperature
- B) Subcooled liquid — all liquid, cooled below the condensing saturation temperature
- C) Saturated mixture — a two-phase liquid/vapour mixture
- D) Supercritical fluid — beyond the critical point in high-pressure systems
Correct answer: B
Condenser outlet: subcooled liquid under normal operation. The condenser removes heat from the refrigerant in three stages: 1) desuperheating (vapour cools to saturation), 2) condensing (vapour → liquid at constant pressure/temp), 3) subcooling (liquid cools further below saturation). Subcooling ensures that vapour bubbles do not form in the liquid line before the metering device. Normal subcooling: 8–15°F (4–8°C).
Key concept: Condenser outlet: subcooled liquid. Measure: condensing saturation temp (from pressure) minus actual liquid line temp = subcooling. Normal: 8–15°F. Insufficient subcooling: flashing in liquid line → noisy TXV, poor performance. Causes of low subcooling: undercharge, restriction, oversized condenser.
Q10medium
A refrigeration system has higher-than-normal suction pressure AND higher-than-normal discharge pressure simultaneously. What does this pattern most likely indicate?
- A) Refrigerant undercharge — low charge causes both pressures to be low
- B) Refrigerant overcharge or poor condenser heat rejection (dirty coil, failed fan, or high ambient)
- C) A restricted liquid line — restriction increases discharge pressure and starves the evaporator
- D) Loss of compressor efficiency — worn valves make both pressures converge toward the middle
Correct answer: B
High suction + high discharge simultaneously = refrigerant overcharge or a condenser that cannot reject heat. An overcharge backs liquid up in the condenser and raises both pressures; a dirty or blocked condenser, a failed condenser fan, or high ambient temperature prevents heat rejection with the same result. Check condenser cleanliness, fan operation, and refrigerant charge. Contrast this with worn compressor valves, where suction rises while discharge FALLS and the two pressures converge toward the middle — that is compressor inefficiency, not this pattern.
Key concept: High suction + high discharge: overcharge OR poor condenser heat rejection (dirty coil, fan failure, high ambient). Contrast — converging pressures (suction up, discharge down) = compressor valve/pump wear. Low suction + low discharge = undercharge or restriction.
Q11hard
A technician adds nitrogen to a refrigeration system for pressure testing after a repair. After the repair is complete, the nitrogen is vented and refrigerant is added. The system short-cycles and has low cooling capacity. What likely happened?
- A) The nitrogen was absorbed by the refrigerant oil, changing its viscosity
- B) The nitrogen was not fully vented — residual nitrogen acts as a non-condensable gas
- C) The nitrogen oxidized the refrigerant oil, creating acid in the system
- D) The system was not properly evacuated before charging, allowing air to mix with the refrigerant
Correct answer: B
Residual nitrogen = non-condensable gas — raises head pressure and reduces efficiency. Non-condensable gases (nitrogen, air) accumulate in the condenser, reducing the condenser surface area available for refrigerant condensation, reducing heat transfer, and raising head pressure — cutting system efficiency. Symptoms: higher-than-normal head pressure for ambient conditions, high subcooling (liquid refrigerant backed up behind non-condensables in condenser), shorter cycles. Always evacuate to the required vacuum after pressure testing before charging.
Key concept: Non-condensables (nitrogen, air): accumulate in condenser, raise head pressure, reduce efficiency. Detection: compare actual head pressure to saturation pressure at measured condenser temp (higher than expected = non-condensables). Fix: recover refrigerant, deep evacuation, recharge. Always evacuate after Nâ‚‚ pressure testing.
Q12medium
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigeration system and how does it differ from energy efficiency ratio (EER)?
- A) COP and EER are the same measurement — different names used in different regions
- B) COP is a watts-per-watt ratio; EER is BTU/h per watt — EER ≈ COP × 3.412
- C) COP measures heating efficiency; EER measures cooling efficiency
- D) COP is used only for commercial systems; EER is used only for residential systems
Correct answer: B
COP: dimensionless efficiency ratio. EER: BTU/h per watt. Both measure the same concept — useful cooling output per unit of work input, in different unit combinations. COP = Qc / W (cooling capacity in watts divided by power input in watts). COP = 3 means 3 units of heat removed per 1 unit of electrical energy consumed. EER = cooling capacity in BTU/h divided by power input in watts = COP × 3.412 (because 1 watt = 3.412 BTU/h). A modern high-efficiency air conditioner might have a COP of 3.5–5.0 and an EER of 12–17. SEER (Seasonal EER) averages over a cooling season.
Key concept: COP = Q_cold / W_in (dimensionless). Higher = more efficient. EER = BTU/h ÷ Watts. SEER = seasonal average. Relationships: EER = COP × 3.412. COP of typical AC: 3–5. Heat pump (heating mode) COP: 2–4. COP always >1 for vapour compression (unlike electric resistance heat = COP 1.0).
Q13easy
What is the state of refrigerant as it leaves the condenser in a properly operating system?
- A) High-pressure superheated vapor
- B) High-pressure subcooled liquid
- C) Low-pressure saturated mixture
- D) Low-pressure superheated vapor
Correct answer: B
Refrigerant leaving the condenser: high-pressure subcooled liquid. In the condenser, refrigerant changes state from superheated vapor to saturated liquid, then cools further below the saturation temperature (subcooling). Subcooling ensures no flash gas enters the metering device, improving efficiency and capacity. Typical subcooling: 10–15°F (5–8°C). Measuring subcooling: condenser outlet temperature vs saturation temperature at condenser pressure.
Key concept: Condenser outlet: high-pressure subcooled liquid. Subcooling = liquid below saturation temp. Purpose: prevents flash gas at metering device. Measure: condenser outlet temp minus saturation temp at condenser pressure. Typical: 10-15°F. Low subcooling = possible undercharge or insufficient condenser cooling.
Q14easy
Which component in a refrigeration system is responsible for the pressure drop that causes the refrigerant to change from high-pressure liquid to low-pressure liquid/vapor mixture?
- A) The compressor
- B) The metering device
- C) The evaporator
- D) The filter drier
Correct answer: B
Metering device (TXV or fixed orifice): creates the pressure drop separating the high and low sides of the system. The TXV (Thermostatic Expansion Valve) or fixed orifice/cap tube meters refrigerant flow, dropping pressure rapidly. This pressure drop causes partial flashing (evaporation), dramatically lowering refrigerant temperature. The resulting cold liquid/vapor mixture then enters the evaporator where it absorbs heat and fully evaporates.
Key concept: Metering device (TXV or cap tube/orifice): pressure drop point. High-pressure liquid in → low-pressure liquid/vapor out. TXV: adjustable, responds to load changes. Cap tube/fixed orifice: simple, no moving parts. Refrigerant flash at metering device = temperature drop. This is the division between high and low pressure sides.
Q15medium
What is "superheating" in the context of the refrigeration cycle, and why is it important?
- A) Cooling the refrigerant liquid below its saturation temperature before the metering device
- B) Heating vapour above its saturation temperature so only vapour enters the compressor
- C) Increasing refrigerant pressure above design limits to improve capacity
- D) Adding heat to the condenser to improve heat rejection
Correct answer: B
Superheat: additional sensible heat added to vapor above saturation temperature at a given pressure, ensuring no liquid droplets enter the compressor. Liquid refrigerant cannot be compressed — it would damage the compressor (liquid slugging). Superheat at the evaporator outlet confirms all refrigerant has evaporated. Typical evaporator superheat: 8–12°F (4–7°C). TXV controls evaporator superheat. Low superheat = risk of liquid slugging. High superheat = evaporator not fully used, reduced efficiency.
Key concept: Superheat: vapor temp above saturation. Evaporator superheat: ensures all refrigerant evaporated before compressor (prevents liquid slugging). TXV controls superheat. Normal evap superheat: 8-12°F. Measure: suction line temp minus saturation temp at suction pressure. Low = TXV open too far (flooding). High = TXV starving/undercharged.
Q16medium
How does a heat pump differ from a standard air conditioning system?
- A) A heat pump uses a different refrigerant than air conditioners
- B) A heat pump reverses refrigerant flow with a reversing valve to heat or cool
- C) A heat pump operates at higher pressures than standard air conditioners
- D) A heat pump does not use a compressor — it uses electrical resistance heating instead
Correct answer: B
Heat pump: standard refrigerant circuit with a reversing (4-way) valve that reverses flow direction, switching the roles of indoor and outdoor coils to provide both cooling and heating. In cooling mode: outdoor coil = condenser, indoor = evaporator. In heating mode: reversing valve switches — outdoor coil = evaporator (extracts heat from outdoor air), indoor coil = condenser (releases heat indoors). Heat pumps are more efficient than resistance heating because they move heat rather than create it. Efficiency measured as COP (Coefficient of Performance) or HSPF.
Key concept: Heat pump: reversing valve switches indoor/outdoor coil roles. Cooling: outdoor=condenser. Heating: outdoor=evaporator (extracts heat from air). Efficient to ~-15°C outdoor (varies by model). Below design temp: backup heat activates. Reversing valve failure: stuck in one mode, or blast of warm air in cooling (wrong mode).
Q17hard
A refrigeration system has low suction pressure, high superheat, normal or slightly low discharge pressure, and the compressor is running hot. What condition does this most likely indicate?
- A) Refrigerant overcharge
- B) Refrigerant undercharge (low refrigerant)
- C) Restricted condenser airflow
- D) A failed TXV stuck in the open position
Correct answer: B
Low suction pressure + high superheat + low discharge = undercharge (refrigerant shortage). With insufficient refrigerant, less mass flows through the system. Suction pressure drops because less refrigerant evaporates. The evaporator is not fully fed — superheat is high (starved). Discharge pressure is low or normal because there is less refrigerant to condense. Compressor runs hot from pumping hot vapor with little cooling mass. Diagnose by finding and repairing leak, then recharging to manufacturer specifications.
Key concept: Undercharge symptoms: low suction pressure, high superheat (starved evaporator), low-normal discharge pressure, compressor runs hot. Find and fix leak BEFORE recharging (environmental/regulatory requirement). Use electronic leak detector + UV dye. Log charge amount per regulations.
Q18hard
What is the effect of non-condensable gases (such as air or nitrogen) in a refrigeration system?
- A) Non-condensable gases lower discharge pressure and improve efficiency
- B) Non-condensable gases collect in the condenser, raising discharge pressure
- C) Non-condensable gases only affect suction pressure, not discharge pressure
- D) Non-condensable gases have no effect if the system has adequate refrigerant charge
Correct answer: B
Non-condensable gases (air, nitrogen) in a refrigeration system: raise head pressure, reduce efficiency and capacity. Unlike refrigerant, these gases cannot condense in the condenser. They occupy condenser volume and partially block heat transfer, raising condensing pressure and temperature. Signs: discharge pressure higher than expected for outdoor temperature, condenser outlet warm, discharge/suction pressure ratio too high. Cause: improper evacuation, system opened without recovering refrigerant, leak on suction side pulling in air.
Key concept: Non-condensable gases (air/nitrogen): collect in condenser → high head pressure, poor heat transfer, high compression ratio, compressor overheating. Diagnose: discharge pressure too high for ambient temp. Fix: recover refrigerant, evacuate properly (500 microns or less), recharge. Prevent: always evacuate before charging; never use nitrogen without recovery.
Q19hard
Explain the purpose of a liquid line filter drier in a refrigeration system and when it must be replaced.
- A) It filters oil from the refrigerant and must be replaced at every annual service
- B) It removes moisture and solid contaminants — replaced whenever the system is opened
- C) It filters suction gas before it enters the compressor and is replaced only when the compressor fails
- D) It maintains refrigerant charge by trapping escaped refrigerant — replaced only when fully saturated
Correct answer: B
Filter drier: removes moisture and debris from the refrigerant stream — must be replaced whenever the system is opened to atmosphere or moisture/acid contamination is found. Moisture in a refrigeration system reacts with refrigerant and oil to form acids (hydrolysis), causing copper plating, valve erosion, and compressor failure. The desiccant (molecular sieve or silica gel) in the drier absorbs moisture. Once exposed to atmosphere, desiccant begins absorbing ambient humidity immediately. Also traps debris that could clog the metering device. A clogged/saturated drier shows as a temperature drop and frosting across it.
Key concept: Filter drier: removes moisture (desiccant) + solid debris. Replace: whenever system opened to atmosphere. Saturated drier symptoms: frost/temperature drop across drier, restricted flow. Desiccants: molecular sieve (most refrigerants), activated alumina, silica gel. Acid contamination: use liquid-line drier with acid-neutralizing capability after burnout.
Q20medium
What is the purpose of a suction line accumulator in a refrigeration system?
- A) To store additional refrigerant charge for use during peak demand
- B) To catch liquid refrigerant and oil before they reach the compressor
- C) To subcool liquid refrigerant before the metering device
- D) To separate oil from the discharge gas before it enters the condenser
Correct answer: B
Suction accumulator: liquid trap in suction line that holds back liquid refrigerant and oil that might otherwise enter and damage the compressor (liquid slugging). Positioned between the evaporator and compressor, it allows vapor to pass through while holding back liquid. A small metered orifice slowly returns trapped oil back to the compressor. Common on heat pumps (liquid can return during defrost) and systems with large refrigerant charges. Oil trapped too long = compressor oil starvation.
Key concept: Suction accumulator: catches liquid refrigerant/oil in suction line. Protects compressor from liquid slugging. Vapor passes through; liquid held. Small orifice meters oil return to compressor. Common on: heat pumps, large refrigerant charge systems. Failed accumulator (blocked orifice): oil starvation. Liquid bypass: compressor flooding.
Q21medium
A heat pump in heating mode has low heating capacity in cold weather (below -10°C). What is the PRIMARY reason heat pumps lose efficiency at low ambient temperatures?
- A) The reversing valve cannot fully shift at low temperatures, reducing flow
- B) Falling suction pressure reduces refrigerant mass flow and heat extraction from cold air
- C) The defrost cycle runs more frequently, consuming electricity without providing heat
- D) Compressor discharge temperature becomes too high, triggering safety controls that reduce capacity
Correct answer: B
Low outdoor temperature = low suction pressure = low refrigerant density = reduced mass flow = reduced heat extraction capacity — the heat pump approaches its balance point. The coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat pump decreases as the temperature differential between indoor and outdoor increases. Below a certain balance point temperature (typically -5°C to -15°C depending on equipment), the heat pump cannot meet the building heat load and supplemental heat (electric strips or gas) is required. Cold climate heat pumps (inverter-driven) are engineered to operate efficiently down to -25°C or below.
Key concept: Heat pump heating efficiency: COP = heat delivered / work input. At 0°C outdoor: COP ≈ 3-4. At -10°C: COP ≈ 2-2.5. At -20°C: COP ≈ 1.5-2. Balance point: outdoor temperature where heat pump capacity = building heat loss. Below balance point: supplemental heat required. Cold climate HP (variable speed compressor): maintains higher capacity at low temp. Standard HP vs cold climate HP: standard = rated to -15°C. Cold climate (Mitsubishi Hyper-Heat, Daikin Altherma, etc.) = rated to -30°C+.
Q22hard
A refrigeration system is operating with abnormally high discharge temperature (180°C+) but normal head pressure. What condition MOST LIKELY explains this?
- A) The condenser is dirty — a dirty condenser always raises discharge temperature
- B) High superheat at the compressor suction — the gas enters much hotter than normal
- C) The discharge service valve is partially closed — restriction is causing high temperature
- D) The compressor is running in reverse rotation — this always raises discharge temperature
Correct answer: B
High discharge temperature with normal head pressure = excessive suction superheat entering the compressor. Discharge temperature is a function of both compression ratio and suction gas temperature. With normal head pressure (ruling out high compression ratio), the cause must be the refrigerant absorbing excessive heat before reaching the compressor — compressing hot gas produces hotter discharge gas. Causes: refrigerant superheated excessively in the suction line (long uninsulated suction line in hot space — excessive suction line heat gain), or TXV under-feeding/starving (low charge but high suction temperature at compressor due to long warm suction run).
Key concept: Discharge temperature analysis: Discharge temp = f(compression ratio, suction superheat). Normal: 40-60°C above condensing saturation temperature. High discharge temp with normal head pressure = high suction gas temperature. Check: superheat at compressor suction (vs suction line or evaporator). Long suction lines in warm environments: insulate fully. Rule of thumb: discharge temp should not exceed 135°C for most refrigerants — above this: oil breakdown, valve damage risk. R-410A: max discharge approx 135°C. R-22: max discharge approx 120°C.
Q23easy
What is subcooling in a refrigeration system, and why is it beneficial?
- A) Subcooling is the temperature of the refrigerant below the suction saturation temperature — it indicates liquid in the suction line
- B) Subcooling is cooling the liquid below its condensing saturation temperature, preventing flash gas at the expansion device
- C) Subcooling occurs when the evaporator is below 0°C — it describes the cooling of the refrigerant into a sub-zero state
- D) Subcooling is excessive compression — the compressor compresses the refrigerant below its normal discharge temperature
Correct answer: B
Subcooling = cooling liquid refrigerant below saturation temperature in condenser. Benefits: prevents flash gas at expansion device, ensures full liquid delivery to the TXV/EEV, maximizes cooling capacity and efficiency. If liquid refrigerant arrives at the TXV still at saturation temperature, any pressure drop in the liquid line causes flash gas (vapour). Flash gas reduces TXV efficiency and capacity. Subcooling provides a temperature margin — the liquid can absorb heat (from liquid line) or lose pressure without flashing. Typical subcooling: 5–10°C. More subcooling = more efficient but may indicate overcharge.
Key concept: Subcooling measurement: (Condensing saturation temp) - (Liquid line temperature). Measure at: condenser outlet or liquid line near condenser. Normal: 5-15°C depending on system. Too little (<3°C): flash gas in liquid line, TXV hunting. Too much (>20°C): possible overcharge or liquid line too cold. Subcooling vs superheat: Subcooling measured at liquid line (high side). Superheat measured at suction line (low side). Both are critical diagnostic parameters. Subcooling increasing + pressures rising = overcharge. Subcooling decreasing = undercharge or condenser issue.
Refrigerants — 25 questions
Q24easy
Why has R-22 refrigerant been phased out in Canada?
- A) It is too expensive to produce
- B) It is an ozone-depleting HCFC
- C) It is not efficient enough for modern systems
- D) It reacts with copper tubing
Correct answer: B
R-22 (HCFC) = ozone depleter. Because of its ozone-depleting potential, Canada phased out R-22 production and import under the Montreal Protocol. As of 2020, R-22 can only be used from recovered/recycled stock. Common replacements include R-410A (new systems) and R-407C (retrofit).
Key concept: R-22 = HCFC, ozone depleting, phased out. R-410A = HFC, no ozone impact, higher pressure. R-134a = automotive AC.
Q25medium
A technician is recovering refrigerant from a system. Under Canadian environmental regulations, what is required?
- A) Refrigerant can be vented to atmosphere if the system is small
- B) All refrigerant must be recovered — venting is illegal
- C) Only CFCs must be recovered; HFCs can be released
- D) Recovery is only required for systems over 5kg charge
Correct answer: B
Venting any refrigerant is illegal in Canada. Under the Environmental Protection Act and related regulations, all refrigerants (CFCs, HCFCs, HFCs) must be recovered before servicing, using approved recovery equipment. No exceptions based on system size. Use certified recovery equipment.
Key concept: Never vent refrigerant. Recover ALL refrigerant regardless of type or system size. Violation = large fine.
Q26hard
R-410A operates at significantly higher pressures than R-22. What is the approximate high-side pressure of R-410A at 35°C condensing temperature?
- A) 175 psi
- B) 280 psi
- C) 380 psi
- D) 450 psi
Correct answer: B
R-410A at a 35°C condensing temperature ≈ 290 PSI high side (option B, 280, is closest). R-410A operates at roughly 1.5× the pressure of R-22: at 35°C its saturation pressure is about 290 PSI versus about 195 PSI for R-22. (On a hot day the measured head pressure runs higher still, because the condensing temperature sits well above ambient.) This is why R-410A systems require components, hoses, and gauges rated for higher pressure.
Key concept: R-410A pressures ~50% higher than R-22. At 35°C condensing ≈ 290 PSI (R-22 ≈ 195 PSI). Use only R-410A rated hoses, gauges, and recovery equipment.
Q27easy
Which refrigerant has been phased out in Canada for new equipment because it depletes the ozone layer (high ODP)?
- A) R-134a
- B) R-22
- C) R-404A
- D) R-410A
Correct answer: B
R-22 phased out for new equipment since 2010. R-22 (HCFC) depletes the ozone layer and has moderate GWP — its phase-out was driven by ozone depletion under the Montreal Protocol, not by GWP. Canada phased it out of new equipment in 2010. It can still be used in existing equipment (using recovered/recycled R-22) but new production is banned. Current transition is also moving away from R-404A and R-410A (high GWP HFCs) to HFOs and natural refrigerants.
Key concept: R-22: phased out of new equipment (2010). Still used in maintenance of existing systems (recovered product). R-404A: being phased out (GWP ~3900). R-32, R-454B, COâ‚‚, propane = lower-GWP alternatives.
Q28medium
When recovering refrigerant from a system, the technician must:
- A) Release it outdoors if it is a small quantity (under 1 kg)
- B) Use a certified recovery machine and approved recovery cylinder
- C) Mix it with the new refrigerant cylinder to save cost
- D) Release it slowly to prevent pressure spike in the room
Correct answer: B
All refrigerant recovery requires certified equipment and approved DOT-rated cylinders. Releasing refrigerants to atmosphere is illegal under Canadian Environmental Protection Act (CEPA). Recovery machines pull refrigerant from the system and compress it into DOT-rated recovery cylinders. Never mix refrigerants. Recovered refrigerant must be reclaimed or properly disposed.
Key concept: Refrigerant recovery: mandatory, no exceptions. Use certified recovery equipment + DOT recovery cylinder. Never release to atmosphere. Illegal under CEPA — fines are substantial.
Q29medium
R-410A is a zeotropic blend. This means:
- A) It is a single-component refrigerant that boils at a constant temperature
- B) It is a blend that boils and condenses over a range of temperatures
- C) It can only be used in systems with copper piping
- D) Its components separate completely in the liquid phase
Correct answer: B
Zeotropic blend: temperature glide during phase change. R-410A is actually a near-azeotropic blend (very small glide). True zeotropic blends (like R-404A) have significant temperature glide — the components boil/condense at different temperatures, changing the composition as phase change occurs. Always charge zeotropic blends from the liquid phase of the cylinder.
Key concept: Zeotropic blend: temperature glide. Charge from liquid phase of cylinder (inverted) to maintain correct composition. If charged from vapour phase, composition changes = wrong refrigerant in system.
Q30hard
A technician is working with R-32 (a single-component A2L refrigerant). The "A2L" classification means:
- A) Lower toxicity, mildly flammable
- B) Higher toxicity, lower flammability
- C) Non-toxic, non-flammable
- D) Extremely flammable — requires spark-proof tools
Correct answer: A
A2L: lower toxicity (A) + lower flammability (2L = mildly flammable, very low burning velocity). ASHRAE 34 classification: first letter = toxicity (A=lower, B=higher), number = flammability (1=non-flam, 2L=mildly flam, 2=flam, 3=highly flam). R-32 burns slowly and requires specific conditions. Requires A2L-rated equipment (no open flames, proper ventilation, A2L compatible recovery equipment).
Key concept: ASHRAE 34: A=lower toxicity, B=higher. 1=non-flammable, 2L=mildly flammable, 2=flammable, 3=highly flammable. R-32, R-1234yf = A2L. COâ‚‚=A1. R-290(propane)=A3. Know classifications for modern refrigerants.
Q31medium
When adding refrigerant to a system that uses a zeotropic blend (like R-404A), the technician must:
- A) Add it slowly in vapour phase to avoid composition change
- B) Add from the liquid phase of the cylinder (cylinder inverted)
- C) Mix R-404A components separately to get the correct ratio
- D) Add refrigerant only with the compressor running
Correct answer: B
Zeotropic blends: always charge from liquid phase (cylinder inverted). Zeotropic blend components have different vapour pressures — if charged as vapour, lighter components vaporize first, leaving the heavier ones behind. This changes the composition in both the cylinder and the system. Charging from liquid phase maintains the correct blend ratio.
Key concept: R-404A, R-407C, R-410A blend charging: always liquid phase from inverted cylinder. Add through liquid line side (king valve) or through suction slowly to avoid slugging compressor.
Q32easy
R-410A refrigerant is classified as a zeotropic blend. What does this mean and how does it affect system charging?
- A) R-410A is a single-component refrigerant and can be charged in either liquid or vapour phase
- B) It is a blend of R-32 and R-125 that must be charged in liquid phase to avoid fractionation
- C) Zeotropic means the refrigerant changes phase at a single fixed temperature
- D) Zeotropic blends cannot be used with polyol ester (POE) oil
Correct answer: B
R-410A zeotropic blend: always charge liquid-phase to prevent fractionation. R-410A is a near-azeotropic blend of R-32 and R-125. If allowed to leak or flash off as vapour, the components leave at different rates, altering the remaining blend composition. Charging liquid ensures the full blend ratio enters the system. Use a liquid valve (inverted cylinder) or ball valve to ensure liquid charging.
Key concept: Zeotropic blend: components have different vapour pressures. If vapour is bled off, blend composition changes (fractionation). R-410A, R-407C, R-448A are zeotropic → always charge liquid. True azeotropes (R-502, R-410A is near-azeotrope): behave mostly like single fluid.
Q33medium
The refrigerant R-600a (isobutane) is being used in domestic refrigerators. What special precaution is required when servicing these units?
- A) R-600a requires POE oil — no other special precautions needed
- B) It is a highly flammable A3 hydrocarbon — no ignition sources; use flammable-rated equipment
- C) R-600a has a very high GWP and requires a special EPA-certified contractor licence for handling
- D) R-600a operates at very high pressure — standard service gauges cannot be used
Correct answer: B
R-600a (isobutane): highly flammable A3 refrigerant — flammability is the primary hazard. Hydrocarbon refrigerants (R-600a, R-290/propane) have excellent thermodynamic properties but are flammable. Used in small-charge domestic appliances where the charge is small enough to be below flammability limits in room air. Servicing: ventilated areas only, no open flames or sparks, non-sparking tools. Recovery equipment must be rated for flammable gases. These fridges must not be serviced in enclosed spaces.
Key concept: Flammable refrigerants (A3): R-600a, R-290 (propane), R-1270. No ignition sources. Ventilated workspace. Flammable-rated recovery equipment. Small charge only (typically <150g). ASHRAE safety classification: A=low toxicity, B=higher toxicity; 1=no flame, 2=lower flammability, 3=higher flammability.
Q34hard
When recovering refrigerant from a system with a compressor that has burned out internally, what special procedure is required?
- A) Standard recovery with a standard recovery machine — a burnt compressor does not affect the recovery procedure
- B) Use dedicated recovery equipment for acid-contaminated refrigerant and send it for reclamation
- C) Vent the refrigerant to atmosphere — contaminated refrigerant cannot be safely recovered
- D) Flush the system with nitrogen before recovering to dilute the acid
Correct answer: B
Burned-out compressor: refrigerant is acid-contaminated — use dedicated equipment and send for reclamation. A burned motor creates acid and carbon deposits from the breakdown of motor windings (copper, varnish, refrigerant oil). This acid-contaminated refrigerant cannot be recycled back into a system — it must be sent to a reclamation facility (not just recycling). Use dedicated "burnout" recovery equipment to prevent contaminating your regular recovery machine, and clearly label the recovery cylinder as contaminated.
Key concept: Burnout recovery: acid-contaminated refrigerant. Use dedicated recovery equipment (separate from non-burnout recovery machine). Label cylinder clearly. Send for reclamation, not recycling. Burnout filter driers required in system after burnout repair. Test acid level before and after cleanup.
Q35medium
What is the GWP (Global Warming Potential) used to classify refrigerants, and why is it important in the Canadian regulatory context?
- A) GWP is a toxicity rating — higher GWP refrigerants have more health risks for service technicians
- B) GWP compares warming impact to CO₂ over 100 years — Canada is phasing down high-GWP HFCs
- C) GWP is a pressure rating — high GWP refrigerants operate at higher pressures
- D) GWP is only relevant for commercial refrigeration — residential HVAC is exempt from GWP regulations
Correct answer: B
GWP: climate impact relative to CO₂ over 100 years (CO₂ = 1). R-410A has a GWP of ~2,088 — one pound of R-410A released has 2,088 times the global warming impact of one pound of CO₂. Canada's HFC phase-down regulations under the Environmental Protection Act (aligned with the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol) require progressive reduction in high-GWP HFC use. Technicians must understand why refrigerants are transitioning to low-GWP alternatives (R-454B, R-32, R-1234yf, CO₂).
Key concept: GWP: global warming potential relative to COâ‚‚ (COâ‚‚ = 1 by definition). R-410A: GWP 2,088. R-32: GWP 675. R-454B (Opteon XL41): GWP ~466. R-1234yf: GWP 4. COâ‚‚/R-744: GWP 1. Kigali Amendment: HFC phase-down schedule. Canada regulations: significant HFC reductions mandated.
Q36easy
What does the term "GWP" (Global Warming Potential) mean in the context of refrigerants?
- A) The energy efficiency rating of a refrigerant in a given system
- B) A measure of heat trapped in the atmosphere relative to CO2
- C) The pressure rating of refrigerant containers at 20°C
- D) The toxicity classification assigned by ASHRAE
Correct answer: B
GWP (Global Warming Potential): relative greenhouse effect of a refrigerant compared to CO2 over 100 years (CO2 = GWP 1). R-134a has GWP of ~1,430 — meaning 1 kg released has the same warming effect as 1,430 kg of CO2. R-410A GWP ~2,088. Low-GWP replacements: R-32 (GWP 675), R-454B (GWP 466), R-1234yf (GWP 4). Regulatory trend: phase-down of high-GWP refrigerants (HFCs) under Montreal Protocol Kigali Amendment, Canadian regulations.
Key concept: GWP: refrigerant warming potential relative to CO2 (CO2=1). R-22 GWP ~1,810. R-410A GWP ~2,088. R-134a GWP ~1,430. Low-GWP alternatives: R-32 (675), R-454B (466), R-1234yf (4). Canadian regulations: HFC phase-down. High GWP = more refrigerant recovery/reclaim importance.
Q37easy
What is the ASHRAE safety classification system for refrigerants (e.g., A1, B2L)?
- A) Letter indicates pressure class (A=high, B=low); number indicates efficiency rating
- B) Letter indicates toxicity (A=lower, B=higher); number indicates flammability
- C) Letter indicates refrigerant family (A=CFC, B=HCFC); number indicates ozone depletion potential
- D) Letter indicates application (A=air conditioning, B=refrigeration); number indicates required certification level
Correct answer: B
ASHRAE safety class: letter = toxicity, number = flammability. A1 = safest class. A = low chronic toxicity; B = higher chronic toxicity. 1 = no flame propagation; 2L = lower flammability, slower burning speed; 2 = flammable; 3 = highly flammable. Common: R-410A = A1 (safe), R-22 = A1, R-32 = A2L (mildly flammable), R-1234yf = A2L, R-290 propane = A3 (highly flammable). A2L refrigerants require special handling and equipment design.
Key concept: ASHRAE safety class: Letter=toxicity (A=low, B=higher). Number=flammability (1=none, 2L=lower flammability, 2=flammable, 3=highly flammable). A1=safest (R-22, R-410A, R-134a). A2L=slightly flammable (R-32, R-1234yf, R-454B). Special precautions for 2L: no open flames, proper ventilation, leak detectors for occupied spaces.
Q38medium
R-410A operates at much higher pressures than R-22. What does this mean for equipment and technician safety?
- A) R-410A equipment can be serviced with R-22 equipment since the refrigerants are in the same family
- B) R-410A requires equipment rated for its higher pressures; R-22 hoses/gauges are not rated and may fail — creating a safety hazard
- C) Higher pressure means R-410A charge amounts are lower, so smaller cylinders are used
- D) R-410A systems need less refrigerant recovery because the higher pressure expels refrigerant automatically
Correct answer: B
R-410A operates at ~70% higher pressures than R-22 — requires dedicated high-pressure equipment. R-22 operating pressures: suction ~68 psig, discharge ~230 psig (typical summer). R-410A: suction ~120 psig, discharge ~400 psig. R-22-rated manifold gauges and hoses are NOT rated for R-410A pressures and can rupture. R-410A also uses different connection fittings (5/16" flare vs R-22 1/4" flare) to prevent cross-contamination. Dedicated R-410A recovery equipment required.
Key concept: R-410A vs R-22 pressure: R-410A ~70% higher. R-22 suction ~68 psig, R-410A ~120 psig. R-22 gauges NOT rated for R-410A (safety hazard). Use dedicated R-410A manifold set (rated 800 psig+). Different fittings: 5/16" flare for R-410A. Dedicated recovery machine required. R-410A also uses POE oil vs R-22 mineral oil.
Q39medium
What is "refrigerant fractionation" and which type of refrigerant is susceptible to it?
- A) The breakdown of refrigerant into ozone-depleting compounds when exposed to UV light — affects all refrigerant types
- B) The separation of components in a zeotropic blend during leaks or charging
- C) The process of separating refrigerant from oil during reclaiming — required for all blended refrigerants
- D) The freezing of refrigerant in the liquid line at low ambient temperatures
Correct answer: B
Fractionation: zeotropic refrigerant blends (R-410A, R-407C, R-404A) can separate into components during vapor leaks or vapor charging, changing the mixture composition and system performance. Zeotropic blends contain refrigerants with different boiling points and pressures. During a vapor-phase leak, lighter components escape faster, changing the remaining mixture ratio and thus the system's operating pressures and capacity. This is why zeotropic blends must be charged from the liquid phase of the cylinder (cylinder inverted or liquid valve). Azeotropic and near-azeotropic blends are less susceptible.
Key concept: Fractionation: zeotropic blends (R-407C, R-404A, R-410A) separate if leaked as vapor. Different boiling points = components escape at different rates. Result: remaining refrigerant has wrong composition. Prevention: charge zeotropic blends as liquid (invert cylinder or use liquid port). Fractionated charge must be recovered and replaced with virgin refrigerant.
Q40hard
Under Canadian federal regulations (HPFCR), what is required before venting or disposing of refrigerants from a system?
- A) Refrigerants may be vented to atmosphere if the total system charge is under 1 kg
- B) Refrigerants must be recovered with approved equipment regardless of charge quantity
- C) Refrigerants must be recovered only if the system contains more than 2 kg of charge
- D) Refrigerants may be vented during system commissioning if they contain no CFCs
Correct answer: B
Canadian HPFCR (Halocarbons and Perfluorocarbons and their Substitutes Regulations): refrigerant venting is prohibited regardless of quantity. All refrigerants (HFCs, HCFCs, CFCs, HFOs) must be recovered using certified equipment before opening a system or disposing of equipment. Recovered refrigerant must be stored in approved cylinders, reclaimed, or destroyed. Technician certification required for purchasing refrigerants above threshold quantities. Violations: significant fines under CEPA (Canadian Environmental Protection Act).
Key concept: Canadian HPFCR: zero-vent policy for refrigerants. All refrigerants must be recovered before opening system or disposal. Approved recovery equipment required. Recovered refrigerant: store in approved cylinders, reclaim (virgin purity), or destroy. Technician certification (608 equivalent): required. Violations: CEPA fines. No quantity threshold exception.
Q41hard
A technician is working on a commercial refrigeration system and finds a refrigerant leak. What is the correct order of steps?
- A) Repair the leak first, then recover the remaining refrigerant, recharge, and verify operation
- B) Recover all refrigerant, repair the leak, pressure test, evacuate, then recharge
- C) Add more refrigerant to compensate for the leak while scheduling future repair
- D) Vent the system to atmosphere to make it safe to work, then repair the leak and recharge
Correct answer: B
Correct leak repair procedure: Recover → Repair → Pressure test → Evacuate → Recharge. 1) Recover all refrigerant (cannot vent). 2) Repair leak. 3) Pressure/leak test with dry nitrogen to OEM spec (verify repair). 4) Release nitrogen. 5) Deep vacuum (500 microns or below) — removes all moisture and air. 6) Recharge with new/virgin or reclaimed refrigerant to manufacturer specification. Record refrigerant quantity. Document all work per regulations.
Key concept: Leak repair order: 1)Recover refrigerant 2)Repair leak 3)Nitrogen pressure test (leak check repair) 4)Release nitrogen 5)Deep vacuum (≤500 microns, hold 15 min) 6)Recharge to spec. Never add refrigerant to leaking system. Document recovery amount, charge amount, technician certification number. Required by HPFCR.
Q42medium
What is the difference between refrigerant recovery, reclaim, and recycling?
- A) Recovery, reclaim, and recycling are all the same process with different names used by different manufacturers
- B) Recovery: removing to a container. Recycling: basic cleanup for reuse. Reclaiming: reprocessing to virgin purity
- C) Recovery: venting refrigerant safely through a filter. Reclaim: any reuse of recovered refrigerant. Recycling: destroying old refrigerant
- D) Recovery and reclaim are identical; recycling means mixing refrigerants for reuse
Correct answer: B
Three distinct terms: Recovery (remove to cylinder), Recycling (on-site oil/moisture cleanup), Reclaiming (certified facility to AHRI 700 virgin purity). Recovery: extracting refrigerant from a system into an approved recovery cylinder — mandatory before opening. Recycling: passing recovered refrigerant through filters and oil separators for reuse on the SAME system or same owner's equipment. Reclaiming: sending to a certified reclaim facility for processing to AHRI Standard 700 purity (essentially virgin quality, sold for any use).
Key concept: Recovery: extract refrigerant into cylinder (required, no purification). Recycling: basic cleanup (oil/moisture) for same-system reuse (not sold). Reclaiming: AHRI 700 virgin purity at certified facility (can be sold/reused anywhere). Contaminated refrigerant (mixed refrigerants, high moisture, high acid) must be reclaimed or destroyed — cannot be recycled.
Q43hard
When using an electronic refrigerant leak detector, what is an important limitation technicians should be aware of?
- A) Electronic detectors cannot detect any R-410A leaks because R-410A has no odor
- B) Detectors are calibrated for specific refrigerant families and can false-alarm on other chemicals
- C) Electronic detectors must be placed at the highest point of the room since refrigerants are lighter than air
- D) Electronic detectors cannot be used when the system is running — only when it is off
Correct answer: B
Electronic leak detectors have limitations: cross-sensitivity to other chemicals, calibration for specific refrigerant groups, and possible misses of certain refrigerant types. Heated diode detectors: very sensitive but can trigger on alcohol, chlorinated solvents, and other halogens (false positives). Infrared detectors: more selective, fewer false positives. All detectors: sensitivity degrades over time (sensor element replacement needed). Most refrigerants are heavier than air (except ammonia) — check at low points. Always confirm finds with UV dye or soap bubble solution.
Key concept: Electronic leak detector limitations: false positives (alcohol, solvents with halogenated diode type). Sensor degrades over time. Refrigerants mostly heavier than air — check at low points, floor level. Methods: 1)Electronic detector (scan from bottom up), 2)UV dye + UV light, 3)Soap bubbles (confirm only). Use nitrogen pressure test to verify repair — detector cannot confirm leak-tight.
Q44medium
R-410A is being phased out in favour of lower-GWP refrigerants under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol. Which refrigerant is commonly replacing R-410A in new residential air conditioning equipment?
- A) R-22 — this refrigerant has a lower GWP and is being reintroduced
- B) R-32 or R-454B — lower-GWP A2L refrigerants with similar performance
- C) R-404A — a direct substitute with identical operating pressures
- D) CO₂ (R-744) — carbon dioxide is replacing R-410A in all air conditioning applications
Correct answer: B
R-32 (GWP 675) and R-454B (GWP 466) are primary replacements for R-410A (GWP 2088), with similar performance characteristics. Both are A2L classified (mildly flammable) — requiring specific compressors and system design, updated components, leak detection in equipment, and technician training. R-32 is a single-component refrigerant with simpler reclaim. R-454B is a blend. Both use POE oil, similar to R-410A systems. Some manufacturers also use R-466A (non-flammable, higher GWP than R-32 but lower than R-410A).
Key concept: R-410A phase-down: Kigali Amendment (2016) targets HFCs by GWP. Canada: following HFC phase-down schedule. R-410A GWP = 2088. Replacements: R-32 (GWP 675, A2L), R-454B (GWP 466, A2L), R-466A (non-flammable, GWP ~733). A2L refrigerants: mildly flammable (lower flammability limit, low burning velocity). Require: compatible equipment design, leak detection, special handling. Not interchangeable with R-410A — different pressures, different lubricants may be required. Training required before handling A2L refrigerants.
Q45hard
A technician is performing a system conversion from R-22 to R-407C (a common R-22 retrofit blend — NOT a drop-in: it requires conversion to POE oil). After the conversion, the system runs but suction pressure is lower than expected and capacity seems reduced. What is the MOST likely cause?
- A) R-407C is not compatible with R-22 systems — the conversion cannot succeed
- B) The TXV is still sized and set for R-22 — it needs recalibration or replacement
- C) The compressor oil is contaminated — drain and refill with mineral oil
- D) R-407C requires a higher condensing pressure — adjust the head pressure control to 50 psi higher
Correct answer: B
TXV calibrated for R-22 will not perform correctly with R-407C due to different thermodynamic properties (latent heat, pressure-temperature relationship). R-407C is a zeotropic blend (R-32/125/134a) with temperature glide — its saturation characteristics differ from R-22. A TXV calibrated for R-22 will pass incorrect refrigerant flow for R-407C operating conditions, and the sensing bulb charge must be compatible with R-407C. Also: check that TXV superheat setting is appropriate for R-407C. Some TXVs are adjustable; others require replacement with R-407C-rated valves. R-407C is not a drop-in — mineral oil must be replaced with POE.
Key concept: R-22 to R-407C conversion: 1) Remove R-22 (recover, reclaim). 2) Replace filter drier. 3) Flush system (if mineral oil — remove residual oil, add POE). 4) Check/replace TXV (R-407C specific or adjustable). 5) Charge with R-407C by weight (liquid — zeotropic blend fractionate if charged as vapour). 6) Set superheat. R-407C temperature glide: 5-7°C glide — use midpoint or dew point for superheat calculation depending on application. Must be charged as liquid from cylinder.
Q46easy
Under Canadian regulations (Environment and Climate Change Canada), what is required before a technician can purchase refrigerants in containers larger than 2 kg?
- A) No special certification is required — anyone may purchase refrigerants in any quantity
- B) The technician must hold a valid refrigerant handling certification (TECA or provincial equivalent)
- C) Only licensed engineers may purchase refrigerants — technicians must obtain refrigerant through their employer only
- D) A refrigerant purchase permit must be obtained from Environment Canada for each transaction
Correct answer: B
Canadian regulations require refrigerant handling certification for purchasing containers >2 kg. Under the federal Ozone-Depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations (ODSHAR), persons purchasing HFCs, HCFCs, or CFCs in quantities over 2 kg must hold a recognized refrigerant handling certification. In Canada, this is typically the TECA (Technician Certification Authority) AC Level 1/2 or equivalent provincial certification. This also requires proper equipment for refrigerant recovery.
Key concept: Canadian refrigerant regulations: ODSHAR (Ozone-Depleting Substances and Halocarbon Alternatives Regulations) — federal. Requires: certification for purchase >2kg, recovery equipment, record-keeping. TECA certification: Level 1 (small appliances, <5 lb), Level 2 (high-pressure systems, R-22/R-410A), Level 3 (low-pressure, centrifugal chillers). Recovery: must recover to 90%+ efficiency before opening system. Venting refrigerant: illegal, significant fines. Record-keeping: refrigerant purchased/recovered must be logged.
Q47medium
Per CSA B52 (Mechanical Refrigeration Code), a refrigeration system large enough to require a dedicated machinery (machine) room must include which safety provision in that room?
- A) A carbon monoxide detector interlocked to the building fire alarm
- B) A refrigerant vapour detector that sounds an alarm and starts mechanical (emergency) ventilation
- C) An oxygen-enrichment supply to replace air displaced by a leak
- D) A natural-draft louvre no larger than 0.5 m² with no powered ventilation
Correct answer: B
CSA B52 machinery rooms require refrigerant detection plus emergency mechanical ventilation. A refrigerant vapour detector monitors the room and, at a set concentration, sounds an alarm and starts (or increases) mechanical ventilation to purge the leak. This guards against oxygen displacement/asphyxiation with any refrigerant and against ignition with flammable or A2L refrigerants. A CO detector is for combustion (fuel-burning) appliances, not refrigerant leaks. The 2023 edition (B52:23) adds dedicated A2L detection and ventilation provisions.
Key concept: CSA B52 machinery room: refrigerant detector → alarm + emergency mechanical ventilation at a set concentration. Protects against asphyxiation (all refrigerants) and ignition (A2L/flammable). B52:23 adds A2L-specific detection/ventilation. A CO detector is for combustion appliances, not refrigerant leaks.
Q48medium
Under CSA B52, what primarily determines whether a refrigeration system must be isolated in a dedicated machinery room rather than installed in an occupied space?
- A) The compressor type (scroll, reciprocating, or screw)
- B) The refrigerant safety group and total charge relative to the occupancy and room volume
- C) The electrical supply voltage of the condensing unit
- D) The physical footprint of the condenser only
Correct answer: B
CSA B52 bases the requirement on refrigerant safety classification, charge quantity, occupancy, and room volume. Each refrigerant has a Refrigerant Concentration Limit (RCL). If the full system charge could exceed the allowable concentration in the occupied space during a leak, the system must be isolated in a machinery room with detection and ventilation. Higher-risk occupancies (institutional, public assembly) lower the allowable limits. Compressor type, supply voltage, and condenser size do not drive this determination.
Key concept: CSA B52 machinery-room trigger: refrigerant safety group + charge vs. Refrigerant Concentration Limit (RCL) + occupancy + room volume. Exceed the allowable concentration on a full-charge leak → dedicated machinery room with detection + ventilation. Stricter limits in higher-occupancy spaces.
Components — 22 questions
Q49easy
What is the purpose of a filter-drier in a refrigeration system?
- A) To cool the refrigerant before the evaporator
- B) To remove moisture and contaminants
- C) To control refrigerant flow rate
- D) To increase system pressure
Correct answer: B
Filter-drier = moisture + contaminant removal from the refrigerant. Moisture in a refrigeration system is critical — it can form ice at the expansion valve (causing restriction) or mix with refrigerant to form corrosive acids. The desiccant in the filter-drier absorbs moisture. Replace whenever system is opened.
Key concept: Always replace filter-drier when opening system. Moisture = ice blockage + acid formation = system damage.
Q50medium
A reciprocating compressor is making a loud knocking noise at startup that disappears after a few minutes. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Refrigerant overcharge
- B) Liquid refrigerant slugging
- C) High discharge pressure
- D) Worn expansion valve
Correct answer: B
Liquid slug on startup = refrigerant migration during off cycle. Refrigerant migrates to the crankcase (lowest, coldest point) during the off cycle — liquid flood-back. On startup, liquid is pumped — compressors can't compress liquid. The knock is liquid slug damage. Prevention: crankcase heaters, pump-down cycle.
Key concept: Crankcase heater prevents refrigerant migration during off cycle. Always install on refrigeration compressors.
Q51easy
What is the function of a liquid line filter-drier?
- A) To remove moisture and contaminants
- B) To filter condenser coil air
- C) To regulate refrigerant flow to the evaporator
- D) To cool refrigerant before the compressor
Correct answer: A
Filter-drier: removes moisture and contaminants from liquid refrigerant before it reaches the metering device. The desiccant (silica gel or molecular sieve) absorbs water that would otherwise freeze at the metering device or cause acid formation. The filter element captures particulate contaminants. Must be replaced after any system repair that opens the circuit to atmosphere.
Key concept: Filter-drier: desiccant absorbs moisture, filter removes particles. Replace whenever system is opened. A saturated drier causes restriction (liquid line temperature drop across drier = restricted).
Q52medium
A hermetic compressor has a locked rotor condition. The FIRST check before replacement is:
- A) Replace the compressor immediately — locked rotor is always a mechanical failure
- B) Check for liquid flood-back and verify supply voltage
- C) Recharge the system with refrigerant
- D) Check the thermostat setpoint
Correct answer: B
Check cause before replacing compressor. Refrigerant flood-back causes liquid slugging that hydraulically locks compressor pistons. Low voltage at the compressor terminals causes high current + thermal overload. Compressor may free itself after cooling — but replacing without fixing the cause means the replacement fails too. Check: liquid slugging (suction line frost/wet), power supply and voltage at the terminals, overload conditions.
Key concept: Locked rotor: check cause first (liquid slugging, low voltage, mechanical failure). If flood-back, fix TXV/charge level. If mechanical seizure, replace. Identify acid/contamination and flush system before adding new compressor.
Q53medium
A scroll compressor in an air conditioning unit sounds rough and has lower-than-normal discharge pressure. This MOST likely indicates:
- A) The unit is low on refrigerant charge
- B) Worn or damaged scroll wraps
- C) Condenser fan failure
- D) TXV feeding too much refrigerant to the evaporator
Correct answer: B
Scroll compressor noise + low discharge = worn scrolls. Worn or damaged scroll wraps reduce internal compression efficiency — the compressor can no longer build pressure effectively. Also check for refrigerant flood-back (liquid in scrolls accelerates wear). Low refrigerant alone causes low suction AND low discharge together.
Key concept: Scroll compressor: worn wraps = noisy, low compression, low discharge pressure. Flood-back causes scroll wear. Check scroll reverse rotation (wrong phases on 3-phase = very loud noise, no cooling, immediate damage).
Q54hard
An oil separator is installed in the discharge line of a large refrigeration system. Its purpose is to:
- A) Remove moisture from compressor discharge gas
- B) Separate compressor oil from the hot discharge gas
- C) Reduce discharge gas temperature before the condenser
- D) Prevent liquid refrigerant from reaching the compressor
Correct answer: B
Oil separator: recovers compressor oil from discharge gas and returns it to the compressor crankcase. All compressors pass some oil with discharge gas. Without separation, oil accumulates in evaporators (reducing heat transfer) and the compressor loses oil (lubrication failure). The separator uses velocity change and/or mesh to separate oil, returning it to the crankcase via a float valve.
Key concept: Oil separator: in discharge line. Separates oil from hot gas vapour. Returns oil to compressor. Essential on large systems, low-temperature systems, and when oil return is difficult.
Q55easy
The sight glass in a refrigeration liquid line shows bubbles continuously while the system runs normally. This indicates:
- A) Normal operation — bubbles are expected in the liquid line
- B) Insufficient subcooling causing flash gas
- C) The condenser is working too efficiently
- D) Air in the refrigerant
Correct answer: B
Bubbles in sight glass = flash gas = subcooling problem. Liquid refrigerant should arrive at the metering device as a solid liquid (no bubbles). Bubbles (flash gas) indicate: refrigerant is partially vaporizing before the metering device — caused by low charge (low subcooling), restriction in liquid line (pressure drop = boiling), or high liquid line temperature.
Key concept: Sight glass: clear = full liquid flow (good). Bubbles = flash gas = insufficient subcooling or low charge. Moisture indicator: green = dry, yellow/orange = wet (change drier).
Q56medium
A crankcase heater is installed on a hermetic compressor. Its purpose is to:
- A) Pre-heat the refrigerant before it enters the evaporator
- B) Prevent refrigerant migration into compressor oil when off
- C) Warm the compressor windings to reduce starting current
- D) Prevent the crankcase from freezing in cold ambient conditions
Correct answer: B
Crankcase heater: prevents refrigerant migration into and dilution of oil during off cycle. During shutdown, refrigerant vapour migrates toward the cooler compressor crankcase and dissolves into the oil. On startup, rapid pressure drop causes refrigerant to flash out of oil — "liquid slugging" that can break compressor valves and pistons. The heater keeps oil warm to prevent migration.
Key concept: Crankcase heater: prevents refrigerant migration into compressor oil during off cycle. Always energized when compressor is off. Slugging on startup without heater = valve and piston damage.
Q57medium
What is a thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) and how does it control refrigerant flow?
- A) A fixed orifice valve that limits refrigerant flow based on pipe diameter only
- B) A modulating valve that feeds the evaporator based on suction line superheat
- C) An electrically operated valve controlled by the thermostat to start and stop refrigerant flow
- D) A pressure-reducing valve that maintains constant evaporator pressure regardless of load
Correct answer: B
TXV: maintains constant superheat at evaporator outlet by modulating refrigerant flow. The TXV has a sensing bulb on the suction line at the evaporator outlet. As suction superheat increases (evaporator starved, more load), the bulb pressure increases and opens the valve (more refrigerant). As superheat drops (evaporator flooding risk), the spring tension closes the valve. Target: typically 8–12°F (4–7°C) superheat at design conditions.
Key concept: TXV: maintains constant superheat (typically 8–12°F). Sensing bulb on suction line → valve modulates flow. High superheat → valve opens more. Low superheat → valve closes. Troubleshoot: check superheat vs. spec. Hunting: sensing bulb loose or bad. Iced evaporator: TXV too open or stuck open.
Q58hard
An electronic expansion valve (EEV) is used in a variable-capacity system. What advantage does it have over a TXV?
- A) EEVs have no moving parts, making them more reliable than TXVs
- B) EEVs respond to multiple controller inputs for precise, variable-capacity control
- C) EEVs are simpler to service — they can be replaced without recovering refrigerant
- D) EEVs eliminate the need for a sight glass since they confirm refrigerant flow electronically
Correct answer: B
EEV advantages: precise, multi-variable control enables variable capacity and optimization. A TXV responds only to suction superheat. An EEV is driven by the system controller using data from multiple sensors — suction and discharge pressures, multiple inlet/outlet temperatures, load demand, compressor speed. This allows: faster response, start-up optimization, defrost control, capacity modulation matching, and tighter temperature control. Essential for inverter-driven systems.
Key concept: EEV vs TXV: EEV = electrically controlled, responds to multiple variables, enables variable capacity. TXV = mechanically controlled, only responds to suction superheat. EEV: required for variable-speed (inverter) systems. EEV malfunction: scan for electronic fault codes, check wiring and coil resistance.
Q59easy
What is the purpose of a sight glass / moisture indicator in a refrigeration system?
- A) To measure system refrigerant charge weight
- B) To show refrigerant flow condition and indicate moisture content
- C) To check the compressor oil level during operation
- D) To measure refrigerant pressure directly without gauge manifold
Correct answer: B
Sight glass: visual refrigerant flow inspection + moisture indicator. Bubbles or flash in the sight glass indicate insufficient refrigerant (vapour in the liquid line) — common cause: undercharge or restriction upstream. A colour element (usually green = dry, yellow = moisture present) changes colour when moisture contamination is detected. Note: some refrigerant blends (R-410A, R-407C) may show bubbles even when fully charged at certain conditions — verify with subcooling measurement.
Key concept: Sight glass: bubbles = insufficient liquid flow (undercharge or restriction). Colour indicator: green = dry, yellow/amber = moisture. Note: R-410A can show bubbles even when correctly charged (blend property) — use subcooling as primary charge indicator, not sight glass alone.
Q60medium
A hot gas defrost system is used in commercial refrigeration. How does it work?
- A) Hot ambient air is blown over the evaporator to melt frost
- B) Hot compressor discharge gas is routed through the evaporator to melt frost
- C) Electric heating elements mounted on the evaporator fins are energized during defrost
- D) The refrigerant charge is partially recovered into a storage tank, allowing the evaporator to warm naturally
Correct answer: B
Hot gas defrost: discharge gas heats evaporator from inside — efficient and fast. During hot gas defrost, solenoid valves redirect superheated compressor discharge gas directly to the evaporator inlet (in some designs the coil is fed in reverse flow). The hot gas condenses inside the evaporator coil, releasing its heat of condensation directly to the frost accumulation. This is faster and more energy-efficient than electric defrost. Common in commercial walk-in coolers and display cases.
Key concept: Hot gas defrost: compressor discharge gas → evaporator (reversed). Condensation of hot gas melts frost. Advantages: fast, efficient, no external heater. Requires: additional solenoid valves, pressure relief to condenser. Common: commercial refrigeration, supermarket cases.
Q61easy
What type of compressor uses rotating scrolls to compress refrigerant, and what is its main advantage over reciprocating compressors?
- A) Screw compressor — advantage is it can handle liquid refrigerant without damage
- B) Scroll compressor — advantage is fewer moving parts, quieter, higher efficiency
- C) Centrifugal compressor — advantage is variable speed operation and no piston wear
- D) Rotary vane compressor — advantage is very low discharge temperatures
Correct answer: B
Scroll compressor: two interlocking scrolls — one fixed, one orbiting — compress refrigerant between them. Advantages over reciprocating: fewer moving parts (no pistons/connecting rods/valves), quieter, more efficient, smoother discharge pressure. Cannot tolerate liquid refrigerant easily (no valve to absorb shock — liquid can damage scroll tips). Very common in residential and light commercial HVAC. Failure mode: worn scroll tips, flooded start (liquid refrigerant migration during off cycle).
Key concept: Scroll compressor: orbiting scroll compresses against fixed scroll. Advantages: quiet, efficient, fewer moving parts. Disadvantage: limited liquid tolerance (no discharge valve). Common failure: flooded start (refrigerant migration into crankcase during off). Prevention: crankcase heater. Identify by smooth continuous sound vs reciprocating pulsing.
Q62easy
What is the purpose of a crankcase heater on a refrigeration or AC compressor?
- A) To heat the compressor oil to reduce viscosity during cold weather starts
- B) To prevent refrigerant migration into the crankcase oil during the off cycle
- C) To heat the suction line to prevent ice formation at the compressor inlet
- D) To maintain compressor operating temperature during low ambient conditions
Correct answer: B
Crankcase heater: prevents refrigerant from migrating into compressor oil during the off-cycle, which would cause liquid slugging on start-up. During shutdown, refrigerant vapor migrates toward the coldest point — often the compressor crankcase. It dissolves in the oil. When the compressor starts, rapid pressure drop causes the refrigerant to boil violently out of the oil, foaming and carrying liquid into the compression chamber — liquid slugging. The crankcase heater keeps the compressor warm to prevent this migration. Must be energized during extended shutdown periods (especially winter).
Key concept: Crankcase heater: prevents refrigerant migration into compressor oil during shutdown. Refrigerant migrates to coldest point + dissolves in oil = foamy oil on start = liquid slug = compressor damage. Heater keeps crankcase warm to discourage migration. Should be on 24/7 (low wattage). Especially important: scroll compressors, low-ambient conditions.
Q63medium
A TXV (Thermostatic Expansion Valve) is "hunting" — suction pressure and superheat fluctuate rapidly. What is the most likely cause and correction?
- A) The TXV is undersized; replace with larger valve to allow more refrigerant flow
- B) An erratic TXV signal — lost bulb charge, loose bulb contact, or valve mismatch
- C) The system is overcharged and the excess refrigerant is causing the valve to cycle
- D) The condenser is dirty, causing high discharge pressure that forces the TXV to cycle
Correct answer: B
TXV hunting: an overly sensitive valve constantly over/under-compensates, causing oscillating suction pressure and superheat. Causes: sensing bulb has lost partial charge (erratic signal), sensing bulb not firmly clamped to suction line (reads air temperature instead), incorrect superheat setting (adjustment spring set too close to system operating point), refrigerant/TXV mismatch (wrong TXV for refrigerant), or refrigerant cross-charged. Correction: inspect and re-clamp bulb, check bulb insulation, verify refrigerant type matches TXV, adjust superheat setting if accessible.
Key concept: TXV hunting: oscillating suction pressure + superheat. Causes: loose/uncharged sensing bulb, bulb insulation missing, superheat set too tight, wrong TXV for refrigerant. Fix: clamp bulb tightly at 4 or 8 o'clock position on suction line, insulate bulb, verify refrigerant/TXV match. Persistent hunting: TXV may need replacement. Hunting vs flooding: hunting = rapid swings; flooding = continuously low superheat.
Q64medium
What is the purpose of a check valve in a refrigeration system, and where is it typically installed?
- A) To prevent backflow during the off-cycle — installed in heat pump discharge lines
- B) To limit maximum system pressure — installed at the compressor discharge as a pressure relief
- C) To regulate refrigerant flow rate — installed in the liquid line as a primary metering device
- D) To prevent oil from leaving the compressor — installed at the compressor suction port
Correct answer: A
Check valve: allows flow in one direction only — prevents refrigerant flowing backward during the off-cycle. Used in discharge lines on heat pumps and tandem/parallel compressor systems. On heat pumps: discharge line check valves direct refrigerant correctly when the reversing valve switches modes. On parallel/tandem compressor systems: individual discharge line check valves prevent the running compressor from pushing hot discharge gas into the stopped compressor. Also used in liquid lines of multi-evaporator systems to prevent migration.
Key concept: Check valve: one-direction flow only. Applications: heat pump discharge lines (direct flow during mode change), parallel compressors (prevent backflow into idle compressor), multi-evaporator liquid lines. Failure (stuck open): refrigerant backflow, flooding stopped compressor. Failure (stuck closed): restricted flow, high pressure drop, starved circuit.
Q65hard
A reciprocating compressor has a broken valve reed. How would this affect compressor performance and what test would confirm it?
- A) Broken valve reed increases compression efficiency — confirmed by higher than normal discharge temperature
- B) Broken reed allows gas to bypass compression — confirmed by a very low compression ratio
- C) Broken valve reed only affects oil pressure — confirmed by low oil pressure switch tripping
- D) Broken valve reed causes the compressor to short-cycle — confirmed by rapid on/off cycling
Correct answer: B
Broken compressor valve reed: gas bypasses past the damaged valve during the compression stroke, severely reducing compression efficiency and capacity. A broken suction reed: suction gas leaks back during compression stroke — low suction pressure, reduced mass flow. A broken discharge reed: compressed gas leaks back into cylinder during suction stroke — suction pressure rises, discharge pressure drops. Both reduce compression ratio drastically. Test: compressor amp draw will be lower than normal (less work done). Also: very hot discharge line (compressor recirculating hot gas). Verify with valve plate inspection after diagnosis.
Key concept: Broken compressor valve reed: bypasses compression. Suction reed broken: low suction pressure, reduced mass flow. Discharge reed broken: discharge gas recirculates into suction. Both: low compression ratio, reduced capacity, hot discharge line, low amp draw. Diagnosis: abnormal pressures + low amp draw + overheating. Repair: valve plate replacement.
Q66hard
What is the purpose of an economizer circuit in a commercial refrigeration or HVAC system?
- A) To reduce electricity consumption by cycling the compressor off during low-load periods
- B) To subcool liquid refrigerant using refrigerant expanded at an intermediate pressure stage
- C) To use outdoor air for cooling when ambient temperature is below setpoint, bypassing the refrigerant circuit
- D) To recover condenser heat for domestic hot water heating
Correct answer: B
Refrigerant economizer: improves system efficiency and capacity by subcooling liquid using a flash tank or heat exchanger at intermediate pressure. A portion of liquid refrigerant is expanded to an intermediate pressure in the economizer. This cold refrigerant subcools the main liquid line, reducing flash losses at the metering device and increasing refrigerating effect. The intermediate-pressure flash gas is injected into the compressor mid-stage (requires two-stage or economizer-port compressor). Capacity increases 10–15%. Common in commercial refrigeration and VRF systems.
Key concept: Refrigerant economizer: subcools liquid refrigerant using flash tank or heat exchanger at intermediate pressure. Flash gas injected to compressor mid-stage. Benefit: more subcooling = less flash at metering device = more refrigerating effect per kg. Capacity: 10-15% improvement. Requires economizer-capable compressor (port). VRF systems: standard feature.
Q67medium
What is the function of a hot gas bypass valve in a refrigeration system?
- A) To bypass hot discharge gas from the condenser directly to the suction line to reduce head pressure during high-load operation
- B) To inject hot discharge gas into the suction side to maintain minimum compressor load
- C) To bypass refrigerant around the metering device during the defrost cycle
- D) To limit maximum discharge temperature by bypassing hot gas to the oil cooler
Correct answer: B
Hot gas bypass: injects discharge gas into the suction line or evaporator inlet to maintain minimum compressor load at low demand, preventing short cycling and low suction pressure. When refrigeration load decreases significantly (e.g., walk-in cooler at night), suction pressure drops, risking low-pressure cutout and excessive short cycling. The hot gas bypass valve opens to inject warm discharge gas, artificially loading the compressor and stabilizing suction pressure. This is an efficiency penalty (wasted compression work) — used only when modulating capacity is not available.
Key concept: Hot gas bypass: injects discharge gas to suction to prevent low suction pressure/short cycling at low load. Maintained: suction pressure above low-pressure cutout. Penalty: wastes compressor work (gas compressed but does no useful cooling). Modern alternative: variable speed compressors. Used in: process cooling, commercial refrigeration with widely varying loads.
Q68hard
An oil separator is installed in the discharge line of a refrigeration system. What is its purpose and why is this critical for system reliability?
- A) It separates water contamination from the oil to prevent acid formation
- B) It separates oil from the discharge gas and returns it to the compressor
- C) It filters solid particles from the oil before it enters the compressor
- D) It separates refrigerant from the oil to prevent oil being charged into the system
Correct answer: B
Oil separator: catches compressor oil in the discharge stream and returns it to the compressor crankcase — preventing oil starvation and oil accumulation in the heat exchangers. Some oil inevitably leaves the compressor with discharge gas. Without separation, oil accumulates in the condenser and evaporator, reducing heat transfer efficiency and risking compressor oil starvation. The separator uses baffles, mesh, or centrifugal force to drop oil out of the gas stream. A float valve or capillary tube returns oil to the crankcase. Critical for: low-temperature systems (oil moves poorly), long line sets, and systems with multiple evaporators.
Key concept: Oil separator: removes oil from discharge gas before condenser. Returns oil to compressor (float valve/capillary). Prevents: oil accumulation in HX (poor heat transfer), compressor oil starvation. Critical: low-temp systems (viscous oil moves slowly), long piping, multiple evaporators. Location: discharge line immediately after compressor (hottest point, oil droplets still warm and mobile).
Q69easy
What type of oil is required for systems using HFC refrigerants (such as R-134a, R-404A, R-410A)?
- A) Mineral oil — the same oil used with R-12 and R-22 systems
- B) POE (Polyolester) oil — HFCs are not miscible with mineral oil
- C) Alkylbenzene oil — this is the universal oil compatible with all refrigerant types
- D) PAG (Polyalkylene Glycol) oil — this is standard for all refrigeration applications
Correct answer: B
HFC refrigerants require synthetic POE (polyolester) oil for proper lubrication and oil return — mineral oil is not miscible and will cause oil logging and lubrication failure. R-12 and R-22 (CFC/HCFC) systems use mineral oil or alkylbenzene oil. HFCs (R-134a, R-404A, R-410A, R-407C) require POE oil, which mixes with HFCs for proper oil return through the system. Mixing mineral oil with HFCs causes oil to separate out and pool in the evaporator, starving the compressor. POE oil is hygroscopic — keep containers sealed and minimize atmospheric exposure.
Key concept: Refrigerant oil compatibility: R-12 = mineral oil or alkylbenzene. R-22 = mineral oil, alkylbenzene, or POE. HFCs (R-134a, R-404A, R-410A, R-407C) = POE oil required. HFOs (R-1234yf, R-1234ze) = POE oil. COâ‚‚ (R-744) = PAG or special POE. POE oil properties: hygroscopic (absorbs moisture), incompatible with moisture (hydrolyzes, forms acid). Handle POE oil: keep sealed, use within 24 hrs of opening. Moisture contamination: acids damage compressor. System contamination from wrong oil: flush required.
Q70hard
A scroll compressor is producing a loud metallic grinding noise immediately on startup that clears after a few seconds. Oil level in the sight glass is normal. What is the MOST likely cause?
- A) The compressor is worn out — metallic noise on startup always indicates imminent failure
- B) Liquid refrigerant migrated to the compressor during the off cycle — slugging on startup
- C) The compressor discharge valve is worn, allowing high-pressure gas to blow back
- D) The compressor motor windings are shorting, causing vibration and noise on startup
Correct answer: B
Liquid refrigerant migration to compressor during off cycle causes liquid slugging on startup — grinding/rattling noise that clears as liquid is pumped out. The migrated liquid is often an oil-refrigerant mixture in the crankcase. Scroll compressors are less tolerant of liquid than reciprocating compressors — the scrolls momentarily separate but can still be damaged. Causes: low ambient temperature with refrigerant migrating to coldest point (compressor), crankcase heater failed/not installed, refrigerant overcharge. Prevention: crankcase heater, pump-down cycle on shutdown, check valve in suction line.
Key concept: Scroll compressor liquid slugging: migrated refrigerant in crankcase → liquid pumping on startup → scrolls separate (scroll compliance mechanism allows this but causes wear). Signs: noise on startup clearing after a few seconds. Prevention: 1) Crankcase heater (always on during off cycle). 2) Pump-down cycle: refrigerant pumped to liquid line before shutdown — prevents migration. 3) Check valve in suction line prevents gravity migration. Flood-back during operation: TXV overfeeding (low superheat). Migration during off cycle: pressure equalization, gravity flow.
Controls & Electrical — 22 questions
Q71easy
What is the function of a high-pressure safety control (high-pressure switch) in a refrigeration system?
- A) To limit the amount of refrigerant in the system
- B) To stop the compressor on excess discharge pressure
- C) To control the expansion valve opening
- D) To monitor evaporator temperature
Correct answer: B
High-pressure switch = compressor safety cutout. If discharge pressure rises dangerously past a safe limit (blocked airflow, dirty condenser, refrigerant overcharge), the HP switch opens the compressor circuit and shuts the compressor down before damage occurs. Manual reset types require investigation before restart.
Key concept: HP switch trips: check condenser airflow, fan operation, refrigerant charge. Fix cause before resetting.
Q72easy
A low-pressure control (LPC) is set to cut out at 20 PSI and cut in at 45 PSI on an R-22 system. The LPC trips repeatedly. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Condenser fan failure causing high head pressure
- B) Low charge causing suction pressure to fall
- C) Thermostat setting too cold
- D) Compressor valves leaking
Correct answer: B
LPC tripping = suction pressure falling below cut-out. Low refrigerant charge reduces suction pressure below the cut-out setpoint. Restricted liquid line, dirty evaporator coil, or low evaporator load can also cause low suction. The LPC protects the system from operating at pressures where evaporator freeze-up or compressor damage could occur.
Key concept: LPC trips: suction pressure too low. Check: refrigerant charge (leak?), evaporator airflow/coil condition, liquid line restriction. LPC protects evaporator from freeze-up and compressor from liquid slugging at very low pressures.
Q73medium
A high-pressure control (HPC) trips on an air-cooled condensing unit on a hot day. After resetting, it trips again within minutes. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Low refrigerant charge
- B) Fouled condenser coil or failed fan
- C) TXV flooding the evaporator
- D) Compressor internal valve leaking
Correct answer: B
HPC tripping repeatedly = condenser cannot reject heat fast enough. On hot days, condenser performance is already marginal. A fouled coil or failed condenser fan limits heat rejection further — discharge pressure climbs until HPC trips. After cool-down, it briefly works then trips again. Check: condenser coil cleanliness, fan operation, fan blade pitch, airflow obstructions.
Key concept: HPC tripping: head pressure too high. Summer + HPC trips = condenser problem (dirty coil, fan failure). Also check: refrigerant overcharge, non-condensables. Fix cause — do NOT bypass the HPC.
Q74medium
An electronic expansion valve (EEV or EXV) offers advantages over a TXV because:
- A) It requires no electrical power and operates purely on refrigerant pressure
- B) It is precisely controlled by the system controller
- C) It does not require a sensing bulb installation
- D) It is completely self-contained and never needs calibration
Correct answer: B
EEV: electronic precision control based on multiple sensor inputs. The EEV controller reads suction temperature, suction pressure (superheat calculation), and other inputs. It adjusts the valve position via a stepper motor with much faster response and wider control range than a mechanical TXV — allowing operation at variable conditions. Enables inverter-driven VRF systems to work efficiently across a wide range of conditions.
Key concept: EEV advantages: faster response, wider operating range, controlled by ECU using multiple inputs, enables variable-capacity systems. Requires electronic controller + suction temperature sensor + suction pressure transducer.
Q75hard
A defrost control is set to initiate defrost every 6 hours and terminate either by temperature (28°F termination thermostat) or a 30-minute time limit. The evaporator coil consistently reaches full defrost (temperature termination) only once per day — the other 3 cycles terminate on time. This indicates:
- A) Normal operation — defrost cycles run on a fixed schedule regardless of need
- B) The termination thermostat is faulty or positioned incorrectly
- C) Refrigerant undercharge causing excess frost accumulation
- D) The defrost heaters are undersized for the application
Correct answer: B
Time termination (not temp) means defrost is incomplete — the coil is not fully defrosting in most cycles. If the coil were fully defrosted, the termination thermostat would trigger (28°F) before the 30-minute limit. When time terminates, frost remains. Causes: thermostat positioned wrong (reads coil temp, not frost area), failed termination thermostat, undersized heaters, or too-frequent defrost schedule.
Key concept: Defrost termination: temperature termination = coil fully defrosted. Time termination = coil not reaching target temp = incomplete defrost. Frost builds up over time.
Q76easy
An EPR (Evaporator Pressure Regulator) valve is installed in the suction line of a multi-evaporator system. Its function is to:
- A) Limit maximum evaporator pressure to prevent overloading the compressor
- B) Maintain a minimum evaporator pressure setpoint
- C) Regulate head pressure at the condenser outlet
- D) Balance refrigerant flow between multiple evaporators
Correct answer: B
EPR valve: sets minimum evaporator pressure (warmer setpoint), preventing the evaporator from getting too cold. In multi-temperature systems, different evaporators need different temperatures. The EPR valve limits how cold a warmer evaporator can get by maintaining minimum suction pressure above the lower-temperature coil setpoint. Example: produce case at 35°F uses an EPR; freezer evaporator at -10°F does not.
Key concept: EPR valve: maintains MINIMUM evaporator pressure (prevents over-cooling). Used on medium-temperature evaporators in multi-temperature systems. Placed in suction line at that evaporator outlet.
Q77easy
What is the function of a high-pressure cutout switch in a refrigeration/air conditioning system?
- A) To limit compressor speed when head pressure is elevated
- B) To shut down the compressor when discharge pressure exceeds a safe limit
- C) To bypass the TXV when discharge pressure is too high
- D) To open the relief valve on the refrigerant cylinder when pressure exceeds maximum
Correct answer: B
High-pressure cutout: safety device that shuts down compressor at excessive head pressure. High head pressure can be caused by: dirty/blocked condenser, condenser fan failure, refrigerant overcharge, non-condensables in the system, or high ambient temperature. If head pressure reaches the cutout setpoint (typically 590–650 PSI for R-410A systems), the compressor is de-energized — protecting the compressor, condenser, and refrigerant circuit from over-pressure damage. The manual reset type requires a technician reset, preventing restart until the cause is investigated.
Key concept: High-pressure cutout: protects from over-pressure. Trips at setpoint (e.g., 590–650 PSI for R-410A). Manual reset = technician must find cause before restart. Auto reset = restarts when pressure drops. Causes of high head: dirty condenser, fan failure, overcharge, non-condensables, high ambient.
Q78medium
A low-ambient kit is installed on a rooftop unit (RTU) to allow operation in cold weather. What does it control and why?
- A) It reduces the compressor speed to prevent over-heating in cold ambient conditions
- B) It cycles or slows condenser fans in cold weather to maintain adequate head pressure
- C) It activates auxiliary electric heat to supplement the heat pump output in cold weather
- D) It allows the defrost cycle to run more frequently in cold weather
Correct answer: B
Low ambient kit: maintains head pressure in cold weather by controlling condenser fan. Refrigeration systems need a minimum head pressure for proper TXV or metering device function. In cold weather, the condenser is over-efficient — head pressure drops too low, liquid refrigerant enters the TXV with insufficient pressure differential, causing poor evaporator and cooling performance and risking compressor damage. A low-ambient kit cycles or modulates condenser fans to keep head pressure within the required operating range.
Key concept: Low ambient kit: prevents head pressure from dropping too low in cold weather. Controls condenser fan (VFD or cycling). Without it: TXV floods evaporator (insufficient pressure drop), liquid to compressor, flooding, poor cooling. Required for year-round RTU operation in Canada.
Q79hard
What is an economizer mode in a commercial HVAC system, and under what conditions does it activate?
- A) An economizer reduces compressor speed during periods of low cooling demand to save energy
- B) An economizer uses outdoor air directly for cooling when outdoor conditions are suitable
- C) An economizer is a heat recovery ventilator that pre-conditions incoming air using exhaust air heat
- D) An economizer bypasses the filter section when static pressure is too high to reduce fan motor load
Correct answer: B
Economizer: free cooling using outdoor air when conditions allow. When outdoor air enthalpy (or dry-bulb temperature) is below the space conditioning setpoint, the economizer opens outdoor air dampers and closes recirculation dampers — the outdoor air directly handles the cooling load, reducing or eliminating mechanical cooling. The compressor is unloaded or shut off, saving compressor energy. This provides significant savings during mild spring/fall weather and cool nights. ASHRAE 90.1 requires economizers on RTUs above certain sizes.
Key concept: Economizer: free cooling with outdoor air when outdoor conditions are suitable. Control: enthalpy (more accurate) or dry-bulb temperature. Fully open = 100% outdoor air (no compressor). Partially open = mixed. Damper actuator, enthalpy sensor, and controls required. ASHRAE 90.1 requirement for larger systems.
Q80medium
A commercial refrigeration system has a suction pressure transducer fail — it reads 0 PSI at all times. How will this affect system operation?
- A) The system will operate normally — suction pressure is not used for control
- B) The controller sees a false low-pressure signal, likely triggering a fault or shutdown
- C) The condenser fan will run continuously at full speed
- D) The TXV will close completely since it uses the suction pressure signal for control
Correct answer: B
Suction pressure transducer failed to 0 PSI: controller reads severe low pressure — likely shuts down or alarms. Modern refrigeration controllers use suction pressure for system protection (low pressure cutout), compressor management, and in some systems for EEV control. A transducer stuck at 0 PSI simulates a severe low-pressure or pump-down condition — the controller reacts as if the system is in a low-charge or restricted condition. It will typically trigger a fault code and shut down the compressor to "protect" from a non-existent problem.
Key concept: Suction pressure transducer failure: controller reacts to false reading. Stuck 0 PSI = false low pressure alarm/shutdown. Stuck high = controller thinks suction is OK when it's not (dangerous). Test transducer with gauge manifold: compare actual pressure to transducer signal. Replace faulty transducer.
Q81easy
What is the purpose of a low-pressure safety control in a refrigeration system, and what condition does it protect against?
- A) It protects the compressor from damage caused by excessively high discharge pressure
- B) It shuts down the compressor when suction pressure drops below a set point
- C) It limits the maximum operating pressure in the liquid line
- D) It controls the minimum refrigerant charge by measuring liquid line pressure
Correct answer: B
Low-pressure control: stops compressor when suction pressure drops below setpoint. Protects against: 1) Low refrigerant charge (leak), 2) Loss of evaporator load (frozen/iced evaporator, closed damper), 3) Blocked metering device. Low suction pressure: compressor pumps vapor at very low density → reduced mass flow → overheating → possible valve damage. Also protects from operating below freezing point (air ingestion risk on R-22 systems). Auto-reset allows restart; manual-reset requires technician intervention.
Key concept: Low-pressure control: cuts compressor at low suction pressure. Protects: against low charge, evaporator icing, blocked TXV. Manual reset type: technician must identify cause before restart. Auto reset: restarts automatically (may mask problem). Set point: manufacturer spec, typically just above atmospheric pressure (prevents air ingestion). Always diagnose cause of low-pressure trip before resetting.
Q82easy
What is the function of a defrost timer in a commercial refrigeration system?
- A) To measure the time the compressor has been running and schedule oil changes
- B) To initiate and terminate timed defrost cycles that melt evaporator frost
- C) To control the temperature setpoint during different times of the day
- D) To prevent the system from running during the hottest part of the day to reduce energy costs
Correct answer: B
Defrost timer: initiates defrost at scheduled intervals to remove frost from evaporator coils, restoring airflow and heat transfer efficiency. Frost buildup on evaporator coils insulates the surface and restricts airflow, reducing refrigeration capacity. Defrost methods: electric resistance heaters, hot gas defrost, or reverse cycle (heat pump). The timer starts defrost at set times (usually early morning when load is low). Defrost terminates on temperature (defrost termination thermostat — coil reaches ~55°F/13°C) or time. Adaptive/demand defrost systems use sensors to run defrost only when needed.
Key concept: Defrost timer: schedules evaporator defrost. Why: frost insulates coil, blocks airflow → capacity loss. Defrost terminates: temperature sensor (preferred, prevents over-defrost) or timer. Methods: electric heaters, hot gas, reverse cycle. Commercial: usually 2-4 defrosts/day. Adaptive defrost (modern): runs only when frost detected, saves energy.
Q83medium
A commercial refrigeration system uses an electronic expansion valve (EEV) instead of a TXV. What is the main advantage of the EEV?
- A) EEV is simpler and requires less maintenance than TXV because it has no moving parts
- B) EEV allows precise electronic superheat control across a wide range of conditions
- C) EEV does not require a sensing bulb, so it cannot malfunction due to bulb issues
- D) EEV is used only for R-410A systems because TXVs cannot handle R-410A pressures
Correct answer: B
EEV (Electronic Expansion Valve): stepper motor-controlled valve that adjusts flow based on signals from the system controller — improving efficiency and enabling advanced system management. Unlike TXV (mechanical, responds only to suction superheat via sensing bulb), the EEV can respond to multiple inputs simultaneously: suction superheat, discharge temp, evaporator load, compressor speed, outdoor temp. This allows precise superheat control across a much wider operating range. Used in: VRF systems, inverter-driven systems, commercial refrigeration with digital controllers. Can be fully integrated into building automation.
Key concept: EEV vs TXV: EEV = electronic stepper motor, multiple sensor inputs, wide control range, precise superheat. TXV = mechanical, sensing bulb only, limited range. EEV advantages: handles variable-speed systems, wide ambient range, integrates with BAS. EEV disadvantage: electronic components, requires controller. Used in: VRF, inverter AC, modern commercial refrigeration.
Q84medium
A refrigeration system compressor contactor has pitted, burned contacts. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
- A) The contactor coil voltage is too high, causing excessive current through the contacts
- B) Excessive inrush current during compressor starting or short-cycling causing repeated arcing at the contacts
- C) The contactor is too large for the application — oversized contactors pit more easily
- D) Low line voltage causing the contacts to weld together and then tear apart
Correct answer: B
Burned/pitted contactor contacts: caused by repeated arcing during opening/closing under high current. Compressor motors have high inrush current on start (6–10x running current). Each time the contactor opens or closes under load, arcing occurs. Excessive short cycling (frequent starts) accelerates contact wear. Also: low voltage causes contacts to close slowly (extended arcing). Symptoms of failed contactor: welded contacts (compressor won't shut off), open contacts (no start), high resistance contacts (voltage drop, overheating).
Key concept: Contactor contact pitting: repeated arcing on start (high inrush) or short cycling. Welded contacts = compressor won't shut off. Open/high resistance contacts = no start or voltage drop. Preventive: eliminate short cycling (check pressure controls, refrigerant charge), check supply voltage. Check: contact gap, surface condition, coil voltage, mechanical operation.
Q85hard
A commercial refrigeration controller shows a sensor fault for the discharge temperature thermistor. How do thermistor-based sensors work and how would a technician diagnose this fault?
- A) Thermistors are voltage-output devices; diagnose by measuring AC voltage output at the sensor terminals
- B) NTC thermistors drop resistance as temperature rises; compare measured resistance to the R-T table
- C) Thermistors are current-output devices calibrated in milliamps; replace if output is above or below normal range
- D) Thermistors only function within 0–100°C range; discharge temperature measurement requires a different sensor type
Correct answer: B
NTC (Negative Temperature Coefficient) thermistor: resistance decreases as temperature increases. Common in HVAC/R for temperature sensing. Diagnosis: 1) Disconnect sensor from controller. 2) Measure resistance with ohmmeter at known temperature (e.g., room temp ~25°C). 3) Compare to manufacturer resistance-temperature table (e.g., 10kΩ at 25°C is common). 4) Check for open circuit (infinite resistance = failed sensor or broken wire) or short circuit (near-zero resistance = failed sensor or shorted wiring). Also check connector for corrosion.
Key concept: NTC thermistor: resistance drops as temperature rises. Diagnose: measure resistance at known temp, compare to R-T table. Open = infinity Ω (broken wire/sensor). Short = near 0 Ω. Correct resistance but wrong reading: check reference resistor in controller circuit. NTC common values: 10kΩ at 25°C. PTC (positive) = resistance increases with temp — less common in refrigeration.
Q86hard
A variable frequency drive (VFD) is used to control a condenser fan motor. What does the VFD do, and what is a common installation mistake that can damage the motor?
- A) The VFD increases motor voltage proportionally with load; common mistake is using undersized wiring
- B) The VFD varies frequency and voltage to control speed; common mistake is a non-VFD-rated motor or long cable runs
- C) The VFD steps up voltage for high-efficiency operation; common mistake is running at too low a frequency
- D) The VFD converts AC to DC for brushless motor operation; common mistake is forgetting to install a capacitor bank
Correct answer: B
VFD (Variable Frequency Drive): adjusts motor speed by varying AC frequency and voltage proportionally (V/Hz control). In HVAC/R: used for condenser fans (high-head pressure control), evaporator fans, and compressors. Installation mistake: using a standard induction motor (not VFD-rated) with long cable runs. PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) output creates voltage spikes. Long cables amplify these spikes (voltage reflection/standing wave effect), which can break down motor winding insulation. Fix: use inverter-duty motors (enhanced insulation), add output reactor or dV/dt filter.
Key concept: VFD: varies speed by varying frequency (and voltage proportionally). Benefits: energy savings, soft start, precise control. Common mistakes: standard motor (not inverter-duty) on long cable run = reflected voltage spikes = winding insulation failure. Fix: inverter-duty motor (Class F insulation, shaft grounding), output reactor, cable length limit. Also: VFD harmonic distortion on power supply — input line reactor.
Q87medium
What is the purpose of a phase monitor relay in a three-phase refrigeration system?
- A) To monitor refrigerant phase changes and shut down the system if the refrigerant is undercharged
- B) To protect three-phase motors from phase loss, phase reversal, and phase imbalance
- C) To balance the electrical load across three phases to reduce energy consumption
- D) To convert single-phase power to three-phase for use with commercial compressors
Correct answer: B
Phase monitor relay: protects three-phase compressor motors from phase loss, reversal, and imbalance — which can cause motor overheating or reverse rotation. Phase loss (one phase fails): motor attempts to run on two phases, draws very high current, overheats rapidly. Phase reversal (phases swapped): three-phase motor runs backward — compressor pumps in reverse, no refrigerant flow, potential valve damage. Phase imbalance (unequal voltages): motor runs hotter, reduced life. Phase monitor detects these conditions and de-energizes the control circuit before damage occurs. Required for commercial refrigeration compressor protection.
Key concept: Phase monitor relay: protects 3-phase compressor motors. Phase loss = single-phasing = high current + overheat = motor burnout. Phase reversal = backward rotation = no compression. Phase imbalance (>2%) = motor overheating. Monitor: de-energizes control circuit on detection. Required on commercial systems. Also check: single-phasing protection (current monitoring), thermal overload.
Q88hard
A commercial refrigeration system uses a floating head pressure control strategy. What does this mean and what is its benefit?
- A) The head pressure is allowed to rise and fall with refrigerant charge level, reducing the need for precise charging
- B) Condenser fans are controlled to let head pressure drop as low as ambient allows
- C) The discharge pressure is fixed at the minimum possible setpoint regardless of ambient temperature
- D) Head pressure fluctuates freely without controls, reducing wear on condenser fan motors
Correct answer: B
Floating head pressure: condenser fan speed or staging is controlled to allow condensing pressure to drop to the lowest stable level based on ambient conditions — improving system efficiency. Traditional systems maintain high fixed head pressure year-round. Floating head control reduces fans (or varies their speed) to allow the head pressure to drop as ambient drops in winter, reducing compressor work (lower pressure ratio = less energy per unit of refrigeration). Must balance: head pressure cannot go so low that the metering device cannot feed the evaporator. Typical minimum condensing temperature: 80–90°F (27–32°C).
Key concept: Floating head pressure: allows condensing pressure to drop with ambient (don't maintain artificially high head pressure). Benefit: lower compression ratio in cold weather = significant energy savings. Control: fan cycling/speed reduces as ambient drops. Minimum head pressure: set to ensure TXV/metering device can operate. Savings: 15-25% energy reduction in cold climates. Critical for: low-ambient compressor protection also needed.
Q89medium
A walk-in cooler compressor trips repeatedly on the low-pressure cutout (LPC) during normal winter operation, yet the cooler is maintaining setpoint temperature. What is the MOST LIKELY cause and the correct remedy?
- A) Refrigerant overcharge is flooding the evaporator and lowering suction pressure — recover excess refrigerant
- B) Low ambient is dropping head pressure and starving the TXV — install a head pressure control
- C) The LPC setpoint is factory-set too high and should be adjusted upward in the field to stop nuisance trips
- D) A restricted liquid line filter drier is reducing refrigerant flow and causing low suction pressure — replace the drier
Correct answer: B
In cold weather, low ambient temperature around the condenser reduces condenser heat rejection, causing condensing pressure (head pressure) to fall. A thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) requires a minimum pressure differential across it to meter refrigerant properly; when head pressure drops too low, refrigerant flow through the TXV decreases, suction pressure falls below the LPC setpoint, and the LPC trips the compressor. The correct remedy is a head pressure control (HPC) — typically condenser fan cycling or a fan speed controller — that maintains minimum condensing pressure (commonly 100-120 psig / 690-830 kPa for R-404A) regardless of outdoor temperature. Adjusting the LPC setpoint downward would mask the real problem and risk compressor damage from loss of lubrication; a restricted drier would cause high superheat, not an LPC trip under normal load conditions.
Key concept: Head pressure control: required in cold-climate commercial refrigeration. Methods: condenser fan cycling (pressure or temperature controlled), fan speed drive (VFD), or flooding the condenser with refrigerant (flooding valve). Minimum condensing pressure prevents: TXV starvation, LPC trips, and compressor lubrication loss. LPC nuisance trips in winter = first suspect head pressure control failure or absence.
Q90medium
A modern commercial refrigeration rack controller uses electronic expansion valves (EEVs) on each case. What advantage does EEV have over a conventional TXV?
- A) EEVs do not require superheat control — they maintain constant refrigerant temperature
- B) EEVs allow precise central superheat control, fast response, and diagnostic data
- C) EEVs eliminate the need for a filter drier since they filter the refrigerant mechanically
- D) EEVs are simpler than TXVs — they have no moving parts and require no calibration
Correct answer: B
EEV advantages: precise, remotely adjustable superheat control from a central controller; fast response to load changes; diagnostic feedback for remote monitoring — improving system efficiency. EEVs use a stepper motor or pulse motor to control a needle valve with precise position control. The valve position (and thus refrigerant flow) is commanded by the controller based on measured superheat (suction temperature - saturation temperature). Benefits: optimal superheat across all load conditions (often lower superheat than TXV = more evaporator surface used = more capacity), faster response to load changes, reduced energy consumption, centralized monitoring.
Key concept: EEV (Electronic Expansion Valve): stepper motor driven, typically 200-500 steps. Controller reads: suction temperature (NTC thermistor), suction pressure (transducer) → calculates superheat → adjusts valve position. Target superheat: typically 4-8°C for refrigeration cases. Advantages over TXV: precise control, adjustable setpoint via controller, no hunting, diagnostic capability. Disadvantages: requires power and control wiring, more complex. Common brands: Sporlan SEI, Danfoss EEV, Emerson EEV. Maintenance: check valve steps, verify superheat, clean filter screen.
Q91hard
A large commercial HVAC-R system is equipped with a demand defrost control (electronic defrost timer/controller). How does demand defrost differ from time-initiated/time-terminated defrost?
- A) Demand defrost uses a manual initiation only — an operator must start each defrost cycle
- B) Demand defrost monitors actual frost accumulation and defrosts only when buildup requires it
- C) Demand defrost runs the defrost heater at reduced power continuously to prevent frost — the heater never fully shuts off
- D) Demand defrost and time-initiated defrost are functionally identical — the term "demand" refers to on-demand manual initiation
Correct answer: B
Demand defrost: defrosts only when needed (based on measured frost accumulation) vs fixed-time schedule. Time-initiated/time-terminated defrost runs defrosts at fixed intervals (e.g., every 6 hours) regardless of frost buildup — wastes energy when little frost is present, and may not defrost often enough under heavy conditions. Demand defrost senses frost via air pressure differential across the coil, a capacitance sensor, or temperature-rise sensing, and initiates defrost only when buildup is sufficient. Benefits: fewer unnecessary defrosts and energy savings (up to 30% reduction in defrost energy), improved product quality (less product temperature cycling), longer equipment life.
Key concept: Defrost types: 1) Time-initiated/time-terminated: defrosts at fixed intervals, ends at time or temperature. Simple, least efficient. 2) Time-initiated/temperature-terminated: defrosts at fixed times, ends when coil reaches defrost-end temperature (~8-10°C). 3) Demand defrost: pressure differential (most accurate) or adaptive algorithm (learns frost accumulation rate). Demand defrost sensors: differential pressure switch across evaporator coil (coil iced = high pressure drop). Modern controllers: store defrost history, adapt interval. Refrigeration racks: often programmed per zone based on product type.
Q92medium
A three-phase condenser fan motor on a commercial rooftop unit fails to start and trips the overload relay. After resetting, the motor hums but does not rotate. What is the MOST likely cause?
- A) The overload relay is set too low — increase the overload setting
- B) The motor has a failed start winding — three-phase motors do not have start windings
- C) One phase of the supply is open (single-phasing) — the motor cannot start on two phases
- D) The motor is wired for 208V but connected to 240V — overvoltage is causing the overload trip
Correct answer: C
Single-phasing: one phase open at the contactor or motor → motor cannot generate enough torque to accelerate, draws locked-rotor current, trips overload. Three-phase induction motors require all three phases to generate a rotating magnetic field. With one phase open, the motor produces a single-phase pulsating field — it can hold torque if already running (with greatly reduced capacity) but cannot start from standstill. The motor draws locked-rotor current (5-7× FLA) on two phases, heating the windings rapidly. Single-phasing causes: blown fuse (one of three fuses), open contactor contact, broken motor lead, open supply.
Key concept: Single-phasing causes: blown fuse (one phase), open contactor contact, loose terminal connection, broken motor winding lead, open in supply. Detection: voltmeter — check L1-L2, L2-L3, L1-L3 at motor terminals during start attempt. One measurement showing 0V = open phase. On running motor: amperage on two phases = 1.7× normal (motor producing reduced torque from two phases). Phase loss protection relay: recommended for motors >10 HP. Single-phasing: primary cause of motor burnout in 3-phase systems.
Troubleshooting — 24 questions
Q93medium
A system has high suction pressure and high discharge pressure. What does this indicate?
- A) Refrigerant undercharge
- B) Overcharge or poor heat rejection
- C) Restriction in the liquid line
- D) Compressor valve failure
Correct answer: B
Both pressures high = too much refrigerant or poor heat rejection. Overcharge adds extra refrigerant that can't be stored in the condenser, raising both pressures. A dirty/blocked condenser or high ambient temperature prevents the condenser from rejecting heat efficiently — same result. Check condenser cleanliness and airflow first.
Key concept: High suction + high discharge: refrigerant overcharge OR condenser problem. Low suction + low discharge: undercharge OR evaporator restriction.
Q94hard
During a system inspection, a technician finds the suction line is sweating heavily and the evaporator is icing over only at the inlet. This indicates:
- A) Refrigerant overcharge
- B) A restricted expansion valve
- C) Compressor running too efficiently
- D) Condenser airflow blocked
Correct answer: B
Icing at evaporator inlet = TXV starving the evaporator. A restricted, underperforming, or hunting TXV meters too little refrigerant into the evaporator. The small amount that enters boils immediately at the inlet, freezing that area while the rest of the evaporator is starved. Check TXV superheat setting and sensing bulb contact.
Key concept: TXV starving: ice at inlet, warm at outlet, low suction pressure. Flooding: ice throughout, high suction pressure.
Q95easy
A room air conditioner runs but does not cool. The evaporator coil is completely iced over. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Refrigerant overcharge
- B) Restricted evaporator airflow
- C) TXV stuck wide open causing over-feeding
- D) Condenser fan failure
Correct answer: B
Evaporator iced up = airflow restriction most commonly (dirty filter, blocked return). Without sufficient air moving across the evaporator, the coil temperature drops below freezing and moisture freezes on it. Once iced, airflow is further reduced — a runaway condition. Check and clean the air filter first and clear any blocked return. Also possible: low refrigerant charge, dirty blower wheel, stuck indoor fan.
Key concept: Evaporator iced over: most common cause = dirty filter / restricted airflow. Also: low charge, low airflow from dirty blower, low indoor temp. Defrost first, fix airflow restriction, recheck.
Q96medium
A walk-in refrigerator has normal suction and discharge pressure but cannot maintain box temperature. The product temperature is much higher than the setpoint. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Low refrigerant charge
- B) Excessive box heat load
- C) TXV stuck closed
- D) Compressor valve failure
Correct answer: B
Normal pressures but can't pull down = excessive heat load or insulation failure — the refrigeration system is overwhelmed. If pressures are normal, the refrigeration system is working — but something is adding more heat than it can remove. Inspect: door gaskets (let in warm air), excessive door openings, insulation (settled, wet, or failing), door heater stuck on, unusually high product load, compressor undersized for current ambient.
Key concept: Good pressures + can't maintain temp = heat load problem (box insulation, gaskets, doors) or undersized system. Refrigerant/compressor problems typically show abnormal pressures.
Q97medium
A split-system air conditioner's indoor fan runs but no cold air comes from the supply vents. The outdoor unit is not running. The MOST likely cause is:
- A) Dirty indoor filter causing an iced-evaporator shutdown
- B) The outdoor unit is not being called to run or is locked out
- C) Low refrigerant charge preventing compressor start
- D) The indoor fan is on but set to ventilation mode only
Correct answer: B
Outdoor unit not running = no compressor/condenser = no cooling. Diagnose outdoor unit failure separately: check the thermostat call and control wiring, power (contactor coil energized?), fan capacitor (fan starts with push?), compressor capacitor, and safety control lockout (high-pressure/low-pressure control). The indoor fan circulating uncooled air produces room-temperature discharge — no cooling.
Key concept: Outdoor unit not running: check 1) Thermostat call for cooling 2) Contactor (coil + contacts) 3) Capacitors (fan/compressor) 4) Safety controls (HPC/LPC) 5) Compressor itself.
Q98hard
After a system has been open for repairs, a proper evacuation procedure requires pulling vacuum to:
- A) 100 microns or below, verified with a hold test
- B) 29 inches of mercury (Hg) — standard measurement for evacuation
- C) Zero PSI on the manifold gauge
- D) 500 microns — any lower is not necessary
Correct answer: A
Proper evacuation: 500 microns or less (triple evacuation preferred, final pull to <500 microns). Micron gauge (electronic vacuum gauge) required — manifold gauges are not accurate enough. Pull vacuum to 500 microns (some specs require 200–300, or 100 microns or below). Isolate vacuum pump and hold — wait 5 minutes, or a full 30 minutes for complete confirmation. If vacuum rises significantly, there is a leak or residual moisture. Below 500 microns = water boils and is removed by vacuum.
Key concept: Evacuation: use micron gauge (not manifold). Pull to <500 microns (ideally <300). Hold test: isolate pump, watch for rising vacuum = leak/moisture. Triple evacuation method preferred for thorough dehydration.
Q99hard
A refrigeration system was repaired after a compressor burnout. Before installing the new compressor, the MOST critical step is:
- A) Install the new compressor immediately and charge with fresh refrigerant
- B) Flush the system with dry nitrogen and install oversized filter-driers
- C) Replace only the filter-drier and add acid neutralizer to the new oil charge
- D) Run the system on the new compressor for 100 hours then change the oil
Correct answer: B
Burnout cleanup is critical before installing a new compressor. A burned compressor leaves acid, carbon deposits, and metallic particles throughout the system. These contaminate the new compressor oil, degrade new windings, and block metering devices. Full system flush with dry nitrogen, oversized acid-removal filter-driers to remove all acid and contamination, and fresh oil is mandatory.
Key concept: Compressor burnout cleanup: 1) Flush with dry nitrogen. 2) Install oversized filter-driers (both suction and liquid line). 3) Fresh compressor oil. 4) Replace TXV/EXV screens. 5) Test acid level with oil sample kit. Skipping = new compressor fails.
Q100hard
A heat pump in heating mode shows low suction pressure and the reversing valve appears to be stuck in cooling mode. How can a technician confirm the reversing valve position?
- A) Check the outdoor coil temperature — it should be warm in heating mode (acting as condenser)
- B) Measure suction and discharge pressures — in heating mode, suction is from the outdoor coil and discharge to the indoor coil
- C) Check the reversing valve solenoid coil with a voltmeter
- D) All of the above — use multiple tests to confirm
Correct answer: D
Confirm reversing valve position using multiple methods. 1) Solenoid voltage present = valve should be shifted (verify electrically). 2) Touch the reversing valve body — correct operation means specific tubes will be hot/warm vs cool. 3) System pressures should reflect heat pump mode (indoor coil at high side in heating). 4) Outdoor coil should be frost/cool (acting as evaporator in heating mode).
Key concept: Reversing valve diagnosis: check solenoid energized (electrical), feel valve body temperatures (hot discharge shifts), outdoor coil frosting (evaporator in heat mode), system pressures. Stuck reversing valve = cooling in heating mode.
Q101medium
A technician measures suction and discharge pressures on an R-410A heat pump in cooling mode. Suction: 120 PSI, Discharge: 400 PSI. Referring to the PT chart, saturation temperature at 120 PSI suction = 40°F and at 400 PSI discharge = 110°F. What is the condensing temperature and suction superheat if indoor return air is 75°F and suction line temperature is 55°F?
- A) Condensing temp = 110°F, superheat = 15°F
- B) Condensing temp = 110°F, superheat = 55°F
- C) Condensing temp = 40°F, superheat = 15°F
- D) Condensing temp = 400°F, superheat = 15°F
Correct answer: A
Condensing temp = saturation at discharge pressure = 110°F. Superheat = suction line temp − saturation at suction = 55°F − 40°F = 15°F. These values are used to assess system performance. 15°F superheat is in the normal range (8–20°F). Condensing at 110°F is high — check condenser performance.
Key concept: Superheat = actual suction temp − saturation temp at suction pressure. Subcooling = saturation temp at discharge pressure − actual liquid line temp. Know how to calculate both from PT chart + actual measurements.
Q102easy
A split system air conditioner cools poorly and the evaporator coil is completely iced over. The filter is clean and airflow appears normal. What should be checked next?
- A) Replace the compressor — icing is always caused by compressor failure
- B) Check refrigerant charge (suction pressure) and for a restricted TXV
- C) Check the condenser for dirt — a dirty condenser causes evaporator icing
- D) Check the thermostat setpoint — if set too low, the system will over-cool and freeze
Correct answer: B
Evaporator icing with good airflow: low refrigerant charge or TXV restriction. Normal evaporator temperature is 35–45°F (2–7°C). If suction pressure drops too low (undercharge, restricted or stuck-closed TXV), evaporator temperature drops below 32°F (0°C) and moisture in the air freezes on the coil. First: let ice thaw completely (airflow will not penetrate ice). Then measure suction pressure/superheat with gauges. Low suction + high superheat = undercharge. Low suction + low superheat = TXV restriction.
Key concept: Iced evaporator causes: 1) Low refrigerant (low suction, high superheat). 2) Restricted TXV/metering device (low suction, high superheat). 3) Low airflow (low suction eventually). Thaw first, then diagnose. High superheat = evaporator starved. Low superheat with icing = other causes (low load, intermittent fan).
Q103medium
A technician measures suction superheat of 30°F (17°C) and discharge superheat of 60°F (33°C) at rated conditions. What do these high values indicate?
- A) Normal operation — high superheat indicates efficient compressor performance
- B) The evaporator is starved — refrigerant fully evaporates well before the outlet
- C) The system is overcharged — excess refrigerant causes high superheat at both points
- D) The condenser is too efficient — excessive subcooling is causing high suction superheat
Correct answer: B
High suction superheat (>15°F target) = starved evaporator. If refrigerant fully vaporizes early in the evaporator, the remaining coil surface superheats the vapour instead of absorbing heat from the space — wasting evaporator capacity. Target superheat at TXV systems: 8–12°F. At 30°F, the evaporator is significantly starved — losing capacity and efficiency. High discharge superheat follows from high suction superheat. Investigate: refrigerant charge (undercharge), restricted TXV, restricted liquid line.
Key concept: Suction superheat target (TXV system): 8–12°F at evaporator outlet. >15°F = starved evaporator. Causes: undercharge, restricted TXV, liquid line restriction. High superheat = lost evaporator surface area to superheating instead of boiling. Also causes high discharge temp, compressor heat stress.
Q104hard
A refrigeration system has been retrofitted from R-22 to R-422D. After the retrofit, the system runs but has reduced capacity and higher suction pressure than expected. What is the most likely cause?
- A) R-422D has lower capacity than R-22 and needs a TXV sized for its properties
- B) The R-422D charge is too high — excess refrigerant causes higher suction pressure and reduced capacity
- C) R-422D is not compatible with the original mineral oil and the oil must be replaced with POE before the retrofit
- D) R-422D requires a larger compressor due to its higher molecular weight
Correct answer: A
R-22 to R-422D retrofit: TXV must be resized/replaced for the new refrigerant. R-422D has lower refrigerating capacity per pound than R-22, and retrofit refrigerants have different thermodynamic properties (latent heat, density, flow characteristics). The original TXV is sized for R-22's specific properties. Using an R-22 TXV with a retrofit refrigerant typically results in incorrect superheat control, often flooding (too open) or starving (too restrictive) the evaporator. The TXV sensing bulb must be charged for the new refrigerant.
Key concept: R-22 retrofit: replace TXV (sized for R-22 — incorrect for retrofit refrigerant). TXV sensing bulb must match refrigerant. Also: verify oil compatibility (most R-22 retrofits can use existing alkylbenzene/mineral oil, but POE is preferred for new refrigerants). Filter drier must be replaced (molecular sieve type).
Q105medium
A packaged rooftop unit (RTU) is running but not cooling adequately. Both refrigerant circuits (it is a dual-circuit unit) show normal pressures. The supply air temperature is 72°F (22°C) while the setpoint is 68°F (20°C). What should be checked?
- A) The compressors — if pressures are normal, the compressors must be the cause
- B) The economizer or fresh-air damper stuck open, adding outdoor air heat load
- C) The thermostat — replace the thermostat if temperature is not being achieved
- D) The refrigerant charge — add refrigerant until the temperature setpoint is reached
Correct answer: B
RTU not meeting setpoint with normal refrigerant pressures: look beyond the refrigerant circuit. If pressures are correct, the refrigerant system is likely working properly — but it may not have sufficient capacity to overcome extra load. Investigate: economizer damper stuck open (adding outdoor heat load), excessive outdoor air (fresh air damper malfunction), dirty condenser coil (reducing efficiency), dirty evaporator coil (restricting airflow), duct leakage, missing supply duct insulation, return-air bypasses, or building load exceeding equipment capacity on an extreme heat day.
Key concept: RTU not meeting setpoint, normal refrigerant pressures: check economizer/dampers (stuck open = extra load), coil cleanliness (evaporator and condenser), duct leakage, building load. Refrigerant system may be correct — problem is elsewhere. Systematic approach: eliminate each possible cause.
Q106easy
A window air conditioner is running but not cooling. The evaporator coil is completely covered in ice. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
- A) The refrigerant charge is too high, causing liquid to flood the evaporator
- B) Restricted airflow over the evaporator dropping the coil below freezing
- C) The condenser is too small for the application, reducing heat rejection
- D) The refrigerant charge is too high causing overfeeding of the evaporator
Correct answer: B
Evaporator icing: most commonly caused by insufficient airflow across the coil (dirty filter, blocked return, or failed fan). Normal operation: evaporator coil surface stays above 32°F (0°C) as warm air flows across it, continuously melting any frost. Restricted airflow (clogged filter, failed blower, blocked return): coil surface temperature drops below freezing, moisture freezes faster than it can drain. Ice eventually insulates the coil completely, stopping heat transfer. Also can be caused by low refrigerant charge (low suction pressure = low coil temp). Start diagnosis with: check filter, check blower operation.
Key concept: Evaporator ice/frost: most common cause = restricted airflow. Check: air filter (clogged?), evaporator blower (running?), return air path (blocked?). Second cause: low refrigerant charge (low suction pressure = coil too cold). Diagnosis order: check airflow first (easy/free fix), then check refrigerant. To restore: shut down, thaw coil, fix root cause before restart.
Q107easy
A split system air conditioner is not cooling and the outdoor unit is not running, but the indoor air handler fan is running. What should be checked first?
- A) The TXV sensing bulb position
- B) Power to the outdoor unit: breaker, disconnect, and contactor
- C) Refrigerant charge level — low charge prevents outdoor unit from starting
- D) The evaporator coil for ice formation blocking airflow
Correct answer: B
Indoor running but outdoor unit not starting: check power supply to the outdoor unit first. The indoor blower fan and outdoor compressor/condenser fan run on separate circuits. A tripped circuit breaker, open disconnect switch, or blown fuse at the outdoor unit disconnect kills the outdoor circuit while leaving indoor running. After confirming power: check the contactor (coil energized? contacts closed?), capacitor (start/run capacitors fail frequently — multimeter capacitance test), and check for safety control lockout (high/low pressure switch).
Key concept: Outdoor unit not running, indoor fan on: 1)Check outdoor breaker/disconnect first (separate circuit). 2)Check outdoor contactor (coil voltage present? contacts closed?). 3)Check capacitor (most common failure: run capacitor for compressor or fan). 4)Check safety lockouts (HP/LP switch). Capacitor test: discharge first, measure capacitance, compare to rating (±10%).
Q108medium
A technician measures suction pressure higher than normal and discharge pressure lower than normal on a reciprocating compressor. Both pressures are converging toward each other. What does this indicate?
- A) The refrigerant charge is too high, causing flooding of the compressor
- B) Internal compressor inefficiency — worn or broken valves
- C) The TXV is stuck wide open, overfeeding the evaporator
- D) Non-condensable gases in the system raising suction pressure
Correct answer: B
Converging pressures (suction high, discharge low) = compressor not pumping effectively — internal compressor failure. A healthy compressor creates a large pressure differential between suction and discharge. When suction and discharge pressures converge (approach each other), the compressor is failing to compress: broken reed valves (gas bypasses), worn piston rings, or worn valve plates. Amp draw will be low (less work being done). The compressor runs but doesn't pump. Verify: compression ratio should be 3:1 minimum on most systems.
Key concept: Converging suction/discharge pressures = compressor not pumping (internal failure). Causes: broken/worn reed valves, worn piston rings. Amp draw: below normal (less work done). Verify: low compression ratio (<3:1 typical). Diagnosis: pumping test (measure pressures immediately after shutdown vs after compressor runs — healthy compressor quickly re-establishes differential). Repair: valve plate replacement or compressor replacement.
Q109medium
A walk-in freezer is maintaining temperature but the compressor is running almost continuously with very little off-time. What are the MOST LIKELY causes?
- A) The refrigerant charge is too high, forcing continuous operation to manage excess refrigerant
- B) Excessive heat load or reduced capacity from a low refrigerant charge
- C) The defrost system is running too frequently, causing the compressor to run to maintain temperature
- D) A faulty thermostat is not recognizing that setpoint has been reached
Correct answer: B
Compressor runs continuously: system cannot keep up with heat load, or capacity is reduced. Heat load causes: failing door seals/gaskets (warm moist air infiltration), excessive door openings (new usage pattern), failed evaporator fans (poor air circulation over coil), condenser not rejecting heat properly (dirty coil, high ambient), or a system undersized for the load. Capacity reduction: low refrigerant charge, dirty evaporator (frost build-up between defrosts), restricted metering device. Check: setpoint vs actual temperature, door gaskets, evaporator fans, defrost effectiveness, refrigerant pressures.
Key concept: Continuous compressor run: 1)Excessive heat load (door gaskets, extra product loading, high ambient), 2)Reduced capacity (low refrigerant, frost-blocked evaporator, dirty condenser, failed fans). Check systematically. Seal test: close door on paper — should hold firmly. Evaporator fans: all running? Ice build-up between defrosts = defrost system issue. Condenser: clean, airflow unrestricted?
Q110medium
A refrigeration system has high discharge temperature and high discharge pressure, but normal suction pressure. The condenser coil is clean. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
- A) Low refrigerant charge causing the compressor to overheat
- B) Non-condensable gases (air) in the system, or an overcharge of refrigerant
- C) A worn compressor unable to build adequate compression pressure
- D) A restricted filter drier causing a large pressure drop in the liquid line
Correct answer: B
High head pressure with clean condenser and normal suction = non-condensable gases or refrigerant overcharge. Non-condensables: collect in condenser, increase total pressure without contributing to heat transfer — discharge temp also high. Overcharge: excess liquid in condenser, reduced condensing surface area — high head, possibly high subcooling, liquid slugging risk. Distinguish: check subcooling. Overcharge = very high subcooling. Non-condensables = high head pressure on warm day, subcooling may be normal or low. Recover system, evacuate, recharge to spec.
Key concept: High head pressure + clean condenser + normal suction: 1)Non-condensable gases (recover/evacuate/recharge). 2)Refrigerant overcharge (recover to spec). Distinguish: overcharge = very high subcooling. Non-condensables = high head on warm day, subcooling low/normal. Also check: condenser fan(s) running? Discharge air being recirculated? Adequate condenser airspace?
Q111hard
After a compressor burnout, what contamination must be addressed before installing a replacement compressor, and what is the procedure?
- A) Only the refrigerant oil needs replacement — flush the system with new refrigerant twice and recharge
- B) Acid, carbon, and moisture must be removed: flush, burnout driers, oil acid check, deep evacuation
- C) Install the new compressor and run it until the contamination is naturally removed through normal operation over several weeks
- D) Only the condenser and evaporator need flushing — the compressor discharge and suction lines self-clean during operation
Correct answer: B
After compressor burnout: acid, carbon, and moisture contaminate the entire system — must be fully remediated before installing new compressor. Acid (from refrigerant/oil thermal breakdown) attacks new compressor copper windings and valves. Procedure: 1) Recover refrigerant. 2) Flush system with approved refrigerant flush agent or purge with dry nitrogen. 3) Replace filter drier with oversized burnout drier (suction side too). 4) Install new compressor. 5) Charge with new oil and refrigerant after triple-evacuating to below 300 microns. 6) Run system, then pull oil sample in 500 hours — check acid level. May need second drier replacement.
Key concept: Compressor burnout cleanup: 1)Recover refrigerant. 2)Flush with flush agent/nitrogen (remove acid/carbon). 3)Install burnout drier (suction AND liquid line). 4)Triple evacuate (≤300 microns). 5)New oil in compressor (POE — check spec). 6)New refrigerant charge. 7)Oil acid test at 500 hours. Neglecting cleanup = new compressor failure within months. Acid test kit: Sporlan, Emerson, or similar.
Q112hard
A technician is called to a system with oil logging (oil trapped in the evaporator). What causes oil logging and how is it corrected?
- A) Oil logging is caused by excessive oil charge — drain excess oil from the system and recheck performance
- B) Oil leaving the compressor is not returning — low suction line velocity or wrong oil type
- C) Oil logging occurs only in systems with TXV valves — replace with cap tube to correct
- D) Oil logging is caused by water contamination mixing with the oil — replace filter drier and all oil
Correct answer: B
Oil logging: oil circulates out of the compressor but cannot return — inadequate oil circulation lets it accumulate in low points and the evaporator. Refrigerant velocity carries oil through the system. If suction line velocity is too low (system running at partial load, oversized or incorrectly sized/routed piping), oil drops out of the refrigerant stream and pools. Risers need oil traps (P-traps) sized to maintain velocity even at minimum load. Wrong oil type/viscosity: too thick to flow at evaporator temperature. Low refrigerant charge also reduces velocity. Correction: verify line sizing and re-pipe as needed, add traps/risers, correct refrigerant velocity, verify oil specification and compatibility.
Key concept: Oil logging: oil pools in evaporator/suction line due to insufficient velocity. Causes: oversized suction line, no oil traps on vertical risers, partial-load operation, wrong oil viscosity, low charge. Fix: correct line sizing (velocity 500-1000 fpm horizontal, 1500 fpm minimum vertical risers), P-traps on risers, correct oil spec. Symptoms: compressor oil starvation, reduced capacity, low suction pressure.
Q113hard
A large commercial refrigeration system experiences repeated compressor failures within months of replacement. No obvious cause is found after each failure. What systematic approach should be taken to find the root cause?
- A) Continue replacing compressors with higher-quality units until the problem stops
- B) Perform a comprehensive audit of electrical, refrigerant, and operating conditions
- C) Increase the frequency of filter drier replacement to monthly to prevent any contamination
- D) Switch to a different refrigerant type as the current refrigerant may be incompatible with the compressor
Correct answer: B
Repeated compressor failure: symptom of an unresolved underlying problem — requires systematic root cause analysis. Audit: 1) Electrical: voltage quality (sags/harmonics), single-phasing, phase imbalance, improper motor protection settings. 2) Refrigerant circuit: operating pressures vs design (high head/low suction = high compression ratio), superheat/subcooling, liquid slugging (low superheat, flooded start), contamination and oil acid levels (acid, moisture). 3) Lubrication: wrong oil, oil logging, oil returning contaminated. 4) Operating conditions: high ambient, overloaded system, defrost effectiveness. 5) Installation: improper piping, incorrect electrical protection. Review operating logs for patterns, and inspect each failed compressor (failure mode determines root cause).
Key concept: Repeated compressor failure root causes: 1)Electrical (voltage quality, phase imbalance, wrong overloads). 2)Liquid slugging (low superheat, refrigerant migration, flooded start). 3)Lubrication (oil logging, contamination, wrong oil). 4)High compression ratio (dirty condenser, high ambient, low suction). 5)Contamination (acid, burnout residue). Failure mode analysis: liquid damage = flooding. Burnt windings = electrical/overheating. Worn bearings = lubrication. Document each failure.
Q114easy
A walk-in cooler is maintaining temperature but is running continuously with the compressor never cycling off. The space temperature is at setpoint. What is the MOST likely cause?
- A) The thermostat is failed closed — it cannot turn the system off
- B) The load exceeds system capacity — continuous running is correct under excess load
- C) The compressor contactor is welded closed — the compressor cannot shut off
- D) Low refrigerant charge is causing continuous operation to maintain setpoint
Correct answer: B
Continuous run at setpoint = system is correctly maintaining temperature, but load exceeds design capacity. The thermostat is not calling for shutdown because it IS maintaining setpoint — but barely. Excess load sources: high product load (overloaded cooler), door left open or high door-open frequency, air infiltration through defective door gaskets, excessive ambient heat near the cooler. First check: door gaskets, door traffic, product load, evaporator fans (all operating). Also verify: discharge air temperature, superheat, and system pressures are normal. A correctly running but overloaded system is NOT a mechanical fault — it is an operational issue.
Key concept: Continuous compressor operation at setpoint: check load factors before diagnosing mechanical fault. Common causes: 1) Failed/damaged door gaskets (major infiltration). 2) Doors not closing fully (latch, alignment). 3) Excessive door opening (traffic). 4) Hot product loaded (pulls in extra heat). 5) Evaporator fan not running. 6) Dirty evaporator coil (ice buildup, lint). 7) High ambient temperature (condensing unit in hot location). 8) Undersized system for actual load. Verify: is temperature actually holding at setpoint?
Q115medium
A split-system air conditioner produces adequate cooling but the indoor unit is producing water dripping from the front panel into the conditioned space rather than draining properly. What is the MOST common cause?
- A) Low refrigerant charge is causing excessive coil icing, which melts and overflows
- B) The condensate drain is blocked or the drain pan slope is insufficient
- C) The indoor fan speed is too high, blowing condensate off the evaporator coil
- D) The refrigerant charge is too high, causing condensation on the exterior of the refrigerant lines
Correct answer: B
Blocked condensate drain (algae, mold, debris) is the most common cause of indoor water leakage — water backs up, the pan overflows, and it spills from the unit. The condensate drain pan collects water that drips off the evaporator coil. A blocked drain causes the pan to fill and overflow. Algae growth in the drain line (common in humid environments) is the most common blockage cause. Additional causes: incorrect drain pan slope (should slope toward drain), cracked/leaking drain pan, drain line installed without adequate slope, condensate pump failure.
Key concept: Condensate drain maintenance: flush with water + bleach or biocide annually (prevents algae). Check drain pan: clean, crack-free, sloped toward drain. Drain line: 1/4 inch per foot slope minimum. Secondary drain (overflow): install in drain pan, plumbed to visible location (staining indicates primary drain blocked). Condensate pump (where gravity drain not possible): check float switch, pump operation, outlet restriction. Preventive: biocide tablets in drain pan. Split system drain: plastic condensate pan + PVC drain. Packaged unit: similar, sometimes harder to access.
Q116hard
A refrigeration system shows higher-than-normal discharge pressure, normal suction pressure, and higher-than-normal apparent subcooling. The measured condensing temperature is several degrees LOWER than the P-T chart saturation temperature for the measured discharge pressure. What does this MOST likely indicate?
- A) Refrigerant undercharge — all pressures are affected by low refrigerant
- B) Non-condensable gases adding partial pressure in the condenser, inflating both readings
- C) A failed condenser fan motor — this only affects discharge pressure
- D) Refrigerant overcharge — but overcharge keeps measured condensing temperature matching the P-T chart
Correct answer: B
Non-condensable gases: high discharge pressure, near-normal suction pressure, and inflated apparent subcooling. Air or nitrogen collects in the condenser and adds its own partial pressure to the refrigerant's — so the total (gauge) discharge pressure is higher than the refrigerant temperature alone would produce. Because subcooling is calculated as (P-T saturation temperature at measured discharge pressure) − (liquid line temperature), the inflated pressure makes the calculated subcooling appear larger than real. Diagnosis: compare measured condensing temperature to the P-T chart at measured discharge pressure — if the measured temperature is several degrees LOWER than the chart value, non-condensables are present. An overcharge also raises head pressure, but its measured condensing temperature agrees with the P-T chart.
Key concept: Non-condensable gas diagnosis: 1) Measure discharge pressure. 2) Measure condensing (liquid line or condenser outlet) temperature. 3) Look up saturation temperature on P-T chart for measured discharge pressure. 4) If actual condensing temperature is LOWER than P-T chart temperature at that pressure = non-condensables present (ideal gas raises pressure without raising temperature). 5) Isolate, recover refrigerant, purge non-condensables, recharge. Entry points: improper evacuation, system opened (leak or service), moisture-contaminated refrigerant.
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